Is a mortgage invalid if derivatised like in the USA

[bvchdjg]

Mortgage invalid if derivatised like in the USA.

Would this fall foul of the statute law in any way like:

being unable to show one owner,

or demonstrate title,

can a mortgage title be transferred without the other parties consent if not in default,

if the bank has changed ownership does the title change have to be registered on the charge documentation.

 

Any help on where to look for the relevant regs etc

 

Thanks.