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Debt problem Debt been passed


benking59
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Hi all. I am new to this forum and thank god for the forum very good.

 

I would like some help, I used to have a Paypal account I closed the account got a call from PayPal telling me I had a negative balance due to customer charge back of a high sum of money. around about 3 months after I closed the account.

 

I had a charge back from a customer saying they have not had the goods e.g. done a charge back via their credit card. As the customer collected the item and paid in cash I got them to sign a receipt of proof.

 

However as tried to log back in after few months of closing my account to what I could not so I asked my wife just to make the payment to clear this trouble what she done, however Paypal are still stating I owe the money even though my wife paid it to the sum of £1000, They are still saying I owe them £1000 despite paying from my wife's account?

 

I have spoke to the police and got a crime reference number however the debt collectors seem to treat me as the criminal.

So I stand to loose another £1000 even though my wife paid from her own account? I asked Paypal to check and their response was how do we know that was the intention for the lady to pay for the goods.

 

With the police involved can they check my wifes account and the customer who claims not to had it, to see the customer in fact did receive the money from another PayPal account? - So this is classed as fraud? - Can the police contact the customer and ask this to be confirmed e.g. they had got the money back from another PayPal account etc?

 

I have spoken to a few fellow directors who run my company and there advice is to let them take you to court. Although I have been told it will just get passed back and very rare do they take clients to court?

 

Feels like paypal is a bully even though the debt has been paid but because its in my name is still counts on me?

 

Please help?

 

P.S sorry for any spelling mistakes I know my spelling and grammer is bad.

Edited by benking59
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I had a charge back from a customer saying they have not had the goods e.g. done a charge back via their credit card. As the customer collected the item and paid in cash I got them to sign a receipt of proof.

 

I don't understand this.

 

If they paid cash, how did they do a chargeback? There wouldn't have been anything to charge back as they didn't pay by credit card, surely?

 

When you say that your wife paid the £1,000, did she pay by card? If so, you can get proof by getting your bank statement and showing them that.

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I agree this does not make sense, a simple letter would sort such a situation easily.

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