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Hi, please excuse me if I'm in the wrong forum, but I am completely new to CAG and am looking for some help. My home was repossessed in 1999 by a loan company, who then pursued me for the "shortfall" between the outstanding loan and the sale price of the house. I am wondering if this debt is enforceable if the solicitors who are now receiving payments cannot produce a copy of the original credit agreement, or if they can, can it be rendered unenforceable if the agreement doesn't comply with the Consumer Credit Act? Thanks for your patience.

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