Good evening I hope someone can give me some advice on what to do next. I was due to complete the sale of my house yesterday, however 3 days ago (Friday) I was told by my solicitors that the house couldn't be sold due to 2 restrictions on it against my ex partner. I have explained that all they need to do is to notify the creditors that the house is to be sold, and have proof to show that they have given said written notification, as this is what the LR will need to see before registering the transfer of the new owners and the restriction being removed as the interest of the new owners overreaches the interest of the creditors. I have confirmed this with the LR and have asked my solicitors to do the same in 3 separate emails, however they have come back every time to say that the money to the creditors need to be paid before the sale can complete and have not confirmed that they have spoken to the LR. I am banging my head against a brick wall stating to them that this is not the case. There will be no funds in my ex-partners share to pay any of the creditors as I have a court order for sale of the house that states how the proceeds shall be divided. After discharge of the mortgage, sellers and legal fees, all mortgage payments that I have made against the property for the past 2 years and the amount of the arrears that have been accrued, (which is more than his half of the share) is due to myself. I feel like my solicitors are not acting correctly, and are telling me pack of rubbish, and I am at a loss as to what to do next. Can I instruct another solicitor that knows what they are talking about to act on my behalf in the sale? I am really worried that the sale will fall through due to their incompetence.:mad2: Any advice is appreciated.

Hi, Firstly I will explain my situation. I am a British national and am in a relationship with a Brazilian national. After much thinking about a way to be together in the UK, we have decided that the only way is to marry, and then for him to get a Family Visitor Visa, and from there apply for a Family of a Settled Person Visa. This will allow him to live and work in the UK as a normal citizen. We know that it is strictly illegal to work with a Family Visitor Visa. Here's where the confusion starts - when applying for the Family of a Settled Person Visa, he will have to provide evidence of a job in the UK and earnings of £18,000 or so each year. But all I keep thinking is, "How can he provide this if it's illegal for him to work here BEFORE he gets this Visa???" He is not allowed to work but yet he has to give evidence of work and earnings in order to get the Visa that will let him work. I am so confused right now. Completely illogical. Please can someone help? Thanks, Lauren

I have an unpaid personal unsecured loan from Natwest which was taken out many moons ago. It has now appeared on my credit report as a closed and "settled" account. I haven't paid off the full amount and I haven't agreed as reduced settlement so what could this mean? It is not showing on my report against any DCA.

I have been looking to sort out my debts and was advised to look at the three credit agencies to tally up my debts and debtors etc I have two debts from Lloyds that have been defaulted and now have a "settled" status but the same debts are defaulted with debt agencies. Is this debt settled? Can I have the defaults by the debt agencies removed from my report? They have also defaulted me on two other credit agencies. Thanks in advance

Hi I have been getting harassed nonstop by MMF - regarding a debt which I settled via MacKenzie Hall for a Wageday Advance debt. The debt was paid off 2 years ago - incurred due to moving house and new bank card / account etc - and eventually the debt for a payday loan was cleared with MacKenzie Hall. I have a screenshot and emails to substantiate this. MMF are now chasing me for additional charges on top of this it seems...........of over £120! I have asked them to substantiate the debt and all they have done is provide some numbers - which does refer to the sum that I paid, but these are just typed into the letter, and that there are costs outstanding. There is no copy of the original credit agreement, no copy of anything with reference to the additional costs incurred, which have never been advised to me. Can anyone advise what I should do next? Is there an email address that I can contact at MMF - as their generic one never responds to me, and I have emailed Wageday Advance to confirm payment of this and they are also now ignoring me!!! Strange how they respond to emails when you are after money or repaying them back!!! Many thanks in advance

Hi, I've just been looking at my Experian account. I had two defaulted accounts from back in July 2008. However, one is showing as settled (in July 2013) and the other isn't. If the 6 year rule applies then surely the one showing as settled back in 2013 was settled too early and should be settled in 2014? They defaulted within days of each other - why would one be settled and the other not?

a female friend is on a six month visitors visa from Ghana.she has been here in uk for the passed 2 years by re-newing visitors visas to put her british passport holding 2 year old child in pre school etc. The husband of ten years is a British passport holder and was born in U.K.but lives and works abroad. Now she is in the U.K on another 6 months visitors visa.can she switch to another visa allowing her more permanent stay?maybe by a family of a settled persons visa in this case would her 2 year old british passport holding child who she is here in U.K with qualify as the settled person??. The british husband may not qualify to get anything other than a visitors visa for her due to his £13k per annum wage restriction. any advise or input will be greatly appreciated.

Good Morning Wonderful Caggers! It has been a couple of years since I last fell foul of a nasty DCA as all your previous help assisted me in removing them! I have something here I would like a little guidance on if possible. I had 2 EGG cards which were transferred over to Barclaycard. These 2 were settled in Sept 2008 and February 2009 respectively, ans show as such on my Equifax Credit Report (but not on Noddle strangely enough). Marlin seem to have just taken this on and are now calling and threatening solicitors etc., etc., To be honest I don't want to be drawn into a war with these idiots, however, what would be your recommended action with this? It shows on one credit report, but not another? Where should I begin? As always, the best of great things to you wonderful people!

I check my credit file two to three times a year. Last time I checked was in August and had 3 defaults as expected. I checked again today and one of the defaults (unsecured personal loan for just over £16000) was marked as settled in October 2013 - I have had no communication regarding the debt since January 2013 and was making token payments up till November 2012 but had to stop due to my finances getting worse and having to deal with priority debts. I left that address in October 2013 and my mail has been getting redirected to a relatives address. I checked Experian, Equifax & Call Credit. It is the same on all three. Has this account been sold on or is something else going on that I don't know about? I mentioned it to my sister who suggested that a creditor may have bankrupted me and that is why it's marked as settled but I checked the Insolvency Register and there is nothing on that, there is also nothing on my Credit File regarding any court information. I also checked Trust Online and there is nothing registered there. I'm trying to tidy up my Credit History as I'm looking to move into a rented property soon due to starting new work in April. The agency that renting the property say they may do a credit check so don't really want anything adverse on it. Everything else on my Credit File with all 3 agencies looks good and nothing out of place but I do find it unusual that a £16k default would be marked as settled and no communication from the creditor.

I have a CCJ on which a full and final settlement was reached. I would like to open a bank account. When asked about whether or not i have a CCJ against me should i answer yes. In my case which bank is the best for an account that provides a visa debit card and direct debit facility. i don't need a overdraft. regards

Hi there, I'm not sure if anybody will be able to help me but I recently signed up to see my Experian credit report and discovered a CCJ on there which I was aware of. However, I set up a payment plan up in 2010 and payed the judgement over the space of a few months and it is still showing on my report as owed rather than satisfied. I can remember after the final payment I received a letter with an invoice stating that the balance had been cleared but as this was 3 years ago I'm not sure if I will still have this evidence. Is there anyway I could check why this has happened and get it rectified? Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. Many Thanks Martin

This was my Mums Capital One Visa card debt - a/c opened in Oct 2003, credit limit £1,100 - I have only just found a statement dated 27/07/2006 showing £10.11 charged monthly for Payment Protection Insurance, also on the statement are charges listed and paid per item of £20.00 for Late Payment Fee and for Overlimit Fee (on this statement the overlimit amount was £189.58). I don't know what date the account was either passed to or sold to Robinson Way Ltd (ex Capital One) as the first letter I've found from them is dated June 2007 and the last letter from them is dated 26th June 2008 stating the debt balance due on the account was £981.91. The next communication that I have located is dated 21st June 2009 from Horwich Farrelly Solicitors (interestingly their address, telephone number etc is EXACTLY the same as Robinson Way Ltd) almost one year later and stating that Northants Court granted Robinson Way Ltd a CCJ on 7th February 2009 and the debt ordered to pay was for £1,156.16 which is £174.25 OVER the amount listed almost a year earlier? My mother became seriously ill in 2010 and I started opening her post and dealing with all her correspondence. On 5th October 2010 I opened a letter dated 16th September 2010 from Horwich Farrelly Solicitors referring to the judgment and informing if they did not hear from my mother within 7 days of 16/09 they would apply to the court for a charging order however there may be a reduced settlement figure available on the account. On the same day, 5/10/2010 I called Horwich Farrelly Solicitors and explained my mother had been hospitalised since early July 2010 and therefore unable to contact them directly. Obviously due to data protection the employee would not supply any information to me until I sent them my mothers signature authorising them to correspond with me. I asked the employee to put a note on the account about my mothers situation and to state that I had called them and that I would be forwarding an authorisation letter as soon as I could get to the hospital to get my mothers signature. I also asked if a stop could be put on account allowing them time to supply me with the account information and therefore allowing me time to work out a plan (as this was one of three problems I had to deal with and it was third in importance, first was Santander/Eversheds mortgage arrears threatening repossession and second in importance was a second charge fixed loan which was in arrears on my mothers house which she'd already been to court about just before going into hospital and the court had ordered extra payments monthly ontop of the usual payments which my mother obviously hadn't honoured). I followed this telephone conversation with a letter confirming what had been discussed including my mothers signature of authorisation and also requested that they send me the details of the account debt. I never received information about the account debt. Horwich Farrellys next letter dated 18/10/2010 stating the court had advised them that the bailiff wasn't able to execute the warrant that had been recently issued. Another letter dated 15/11/2010 saying to pay the arrears £1,156.16 within 10 days and also details Instalment:- £120.00 or else enforcement action would be taken. Next letter dated 19th November 2010 stating their client Robinson Way (assignees of Capital One) would accept £763.07 in full and final settlement of the account debt £1,156.16 in six monthly instalments of £127.18? I was overwrought trying to stop the court, Santander, First European Securities ordering the house to be sold and negotiating continually with solicitors and litigation departments etc that I didn't have the time to attempt finding any paperwork for this debt. I could not cope and had no money left to offer payments to Horwich Farrelly so I turned to my mothers friend who loaned the money and who also directly called HF and paid the £763.07 settlement offer with her Visa card. Next letter from HF dated 29/11/2010 acknowledging £763.07 payment but stating the account still had an arrears of £393.09 to pay? I confirmed with Mums friend that she had definitely paid it which she confirmed providing the HF employees name who had taken the payment, the number she telephoned and the bank payment authorisation code she'd been given by HF. I had no time to call HF due to hospital appointments, social services, care agency's etc coming to see me and my mother however the next letter from HF dated 2nd December 2010 confirming the account is now settled following the recent payment and their file on the matter has been closed. About a fortnight ago my mother called the court and was told the account is not settled? Then my mother called Cabot (as far as I am aware of Cabot has not had any association with this debt but Mum rang Cabot as they have been hounding Mum for a few years regarding a Capital One Credit Card debt sold to them. She is convinced she only had 1 Capital One credit card and convinced this settled debt is the same as the one Cabot are wanting payment for? )! Cabot told her it is 2 separate account debts and NEITHER debt has been settled? Soooo friends, is it too late to argue charges and PPI and also to argue the debt balance and therefore the CCJ information??? And which letter do I send and who do I send it to? Many thanks to you all and this is just my first question of quite a few to follow.

I have checked my credit file. some of my debt accounts show default amount but are also marked as settled. what does this mean?

Ladies/Gents I would like to share my success against Aktiv Kapital. AK has been bullying and harassing me since 2009 for debt that didn't exist. I bough a fridge with a comet edge card in 2006 and shortly after it was delivered I changed my mind and sent it back. I didn't hear anything from them until AK started calling me day and night and threatening me with court action and subsequently registered a default against my credit file. I also discovered that AK had illegally changed the default date by 20 months. Fast forward June/ July. I sent Aktiv Kapital a letter stating I did not owe the alleged debt and also this debt is statute barred anyway. They ignored my first letter, then I sent them DPA notice to stop processing my data and gave them 21 days to comply. Again they did not comply and letter before action was sent. Then I issued a claim online for damages and notes as per above. They filed a defence within 2-3 days of issuing the claim online and said they would defend. For the past 2 months they have tried to bully me into submission saying they had strong case and they would defend vigorously. I stood my ground through out and ordered them to remove the default immediately and pay me compensation for all the things they had put me through for many years. Finally once the hearing date had been confirmed and clock started ticking they offered £105 and to mark the alleged debt as settled. I refused straight away. Then finally they say they would settle and pay me full amount claimed and remove the default within 72 hours. I again refused as I had now prepared all the bundles and incurred further costs and I ask them to pay for them and surprise surprise they agreed and further paid for preparing the bundle. Aktiv Kapital are bunch of cow boys and I would advise all of you good people out there to stand your ground when you had been violated by DCA's and AK are B*****s for making up debt when there was none. Bytheway; before I issue the claim I tried the OFT and they were not helpful and infact very rude to me over the phone so from now on Her Majesty Court are way forward for me. cheers all

Hi, First poster, long time reader As in the title, I had a CCJ that was issued in joint names in 2011, and it was settled last month. The CRA's have been registered as settled, and all checks out ok.(EXPERIAN/EQUIFAX) My mortgage with Santander was due for renewal, and, things being tight financially, I cannot afford any more monthly cost. Santander had informed me, that i was due to go on the Standard rate etc, extra £140 a month on my payments, as they could not offer a more attractive rate due to CCJ history being on there. My previous credit searches are squeaky clean, not one missed anything, in 6 years. So, myself and the ex-business partner agreed to pay off the CCJ (last month), we did so, and the courts ect all logged the information. The CCJ was for an HP agreement on some equipment for a business which failed when the financial market went belly up a few years back. When payements could not be made anymore, we had no option but to let this happen. Facts:- The CCJ was issued, as my business partner at the time, refused to pay his half of the debt on the outstanding monies. When this CCJ was issued, he only recieved some, but not all of the paperwork. The creditor agreed verbally that he could have this agreement set aside if we paid it early. We did, he then found his legal team would not permit this, and that in their eyes, it was issued correctly. Speaking to the court this last week, they said if it was satisfied, and they creditors agreed, £40 would see the N244 form sorted out, and actioned. I have contacted the creditor again, to plead that they could issue an aggreement to set aside. - im awaiting on this. If creditor does not agree, I will have send a N244 form that cost £85. This will be on the basis of the following.:- • We negotiated and accepted an out of court settlement , and repayment structure preceding correspondence dated 7th July 2011 between Mr A, Mr B, and creditor. This was accepted by creditor, the letter noted the payments would be £60pm • The first payment under the “out of court agreement” for £60 that was accepted, had been made by us, and received by creditor before the 1th September 2011, as that was the deadline stated for the “failure to respond will result in judgement being requested”. However, On examination, the N1 claim form was signed, and dated by creditor 1st July 2011. Mr A received a reply from creditor regarding our repayment plan dated 16th August 2011. The N1 claim form is dated as issued 4th July 2011. The Judgement was issued on the 7th October 2011 On collation of our received documents from creditor and Reigate County Court, between Mr A and Mr B, covering the time period in question, the following items were not received. Mr A is missing one letter from creditor, dated 15th September, regarding the deadline of 1st Sept 11. A copy of this letter was emailed to Mr A from Mr B, so I could act upon it, during the week between offshore shifts. By then, the claim had unfortunately been put in motion. Offshore conditions and facilities are simply floating prison cells, with harder work Any outside comunications are simply rare. Mr A can confirm that he has not received a N9 response pack from the courts, or a default notice from creditor. During the time of issue of documentation,Mr A was at the correct address held by the courts, and creditor As no letters were sent recorded delivery, from the courts or creditor, we have no way of verifying the whereabouts of missing documentation. If all the correspondence had successfully made it through Royal Mail, this situation would have been so much different, and avoided immediately In a nutshell, we submitted our financial in/out to creditor, we agreed a payment amount, and term. And started paying. They had a CCJ in place before before we had started to pay them, and whilst we were paying them, and also incurring court fees. Yet, they accepted payments.? Would this be a good grounding for an N244? Im hoping you can help, or knows someone who can assist with advice. There is also a formal complaint lodged with santander, as I was informed that the underwriter would look at the case, as there are exceptional circumstances. Yet, after 1 month of hoop jumping, They say NO anyway. There is also the possibility that this amount, contained an insurance premium, to cover theft of the equipment that the agreement covered. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read this. Cheers Loops:)

Hi I had a bank account with A&L years ago. We started a DMP with Payplan which ends in a month. We were paying Santander the debt through the DMP but then I got a copy of my credit file and the account in question had a status of settled as of March 2010 so I thought they must of written the debt off, so instructed Payplan to stop payments this was in May 2012. A few weeks ago I got a letter demanding money relating to the account from Wescot. I told them my credit file states settled and they went off to investigate. They asked for a copy of the credit report so I gave them that. They have now come back with bank statements showing the account overdrawn with charges. My question do I need to pay Wescot what they are asking for when the account states settled? Are lenders allowed to pass statements to debt collectors?

Hello All, Why do CRAs use terms like. a) Satisfied b) Settled What is the difference? All information/advice will as usual be gratefully received. "EXEMPLO DUCEMUS"

Hi, I cleared a default with a company called Safe Loans in December last year, it is however still showing on my Credit Report as in "Default - £365" (Basically showing as still in Default and not settled!). I have written to them 3 times already asking them to rectify the data. I did get a response from them the 2nd time round (In mid January) asking for a screen grab of the data, which I promptly provided. However, another letter was sent by me in Mid Feb again informing them that the data they have reported to me is in accurate and needs to be rectified immediately. I also have it in writing from them that the account is settles and I have no further debt owed to them. There is another one with Motormile Finance, where I took advantage of their discounted offer to clear the balance over 2 payments, giving me a reduction of £132 from the original default amount. Again, this was completed at the end of December, and again, written confirmation that the matter had been resolved is something I have in my possession. After all this at the end of January they £132 off me, which when I noticed I rang them immediately, explained the situation to the girl on the end of the phone, who informed me that yes, they've cocked up and they'll refund my £132, which true to word they did. Now, 2 or 3 weeks after that I noticed an account with them appeared on my credit file, an active Default for £132. Again, I have wirtten to them and had no response or action as yet. I will phone them in the week and talk it through with them, but this is the sort of admin cock ups which is making life a little bit harder for people like me who had a bit of a problem with finances! Anybody got any advice for me?

My daughter has settled loans that were defaulted for three years. Please can someone confirm when these will be removed from her credit record? Six years from default or six years from settlement?

Hopefully a quick question for you guys. How long should I wait before chasing up a 'settled' debt if the entry in my credit file has not been marked as 'settled', but remains as 'defaulted'? I have had an arrangement for some time to pay off a debt. a s this is my only remaining 'default' on my file, I was quite keen to clear it, and restore my CR to a reasonable state, so with a few months remaining of the plan I called up the DCA and paid the final 3 months of outstanding monies. I of course asked that they confirm that this account will now be marked as 'settled' and to confirm in writing that this will be done, and the matter is now closed. That was over a week ago (I know that is not too long), but I was just wondering how long is 'how long' before I should chase up either the DCA or file a note on Equifax to mark this as settled? The final payment was very quickly taken from my debit card (two days - quite faster than the normal 4 days for payment to clear), so they definitely do have the cleared funds. Also, I have signed-up for weekly & monthly alerts from Equifax, and I do regularly get updates from them when something changes (new search, removing SB entries, etc.) so I would have expected an email recently, if not soon. But I really want this cleared / settled before end of year - to start afresh in the New Year so to speak! Any advice would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Mr B

Just looking on my credit report (experian/Noddle) and it shows an account i had for a small loan as settled. This was 3 years ago - no defaults as payments were kept up but the final balance paid was £96 (which i don't remember paying). Does that mean this sum is still outstanding. I telephoned the lender and they said they can't give me payment detials but they informed me the matter is closed and i don't owe anything. They said they have never defaulted the account and have not sold it on. Where does this leave me?

Granted it's Noddle, but the closed accounts listed on Noddle just show settled - and not whether they were in default or satisfactory. Provided a closed account shows as settled (regardless of how the account was run) does it have an effect on one's credit rating? BSBS.

... Is there a difference on a credit file and if so, what is the difference and how detrimental is it to your credit score?

Hi, I have a question but will briefly explain my position first. I have 3 debts, first and second usecured loans and i believe will be removed september this year as the default status was september 2006 the last is december but a secured loan, i,m hoping and preying they will be removed cos this is stopping me and my family from pursuing a mortgage. I believe they should 100% be statute barred sept/dec 2012, however my only worry is on my credit report, well, 1 of them (the secured loan) was updated as follows. Date Updated 06/06/2012 Does anyone know what this actually means?, it clearly states D = DEFAULTED in the payment history december 2006 but last updated as above, i have not accepted the debt or made any payments ever to these companies, as it was infact not my debt anyway, it was ex husbands debt using my name, police wont do anything as its too old, the cra,s say nothing they can do, the creditors arn,t bothered when i told them it was harrassment and fraud but they didn,t reply , just recieved a form to fill in from ombudsman, I have not acknowledged the debt ever and can,t understand what last updated means, all i want is for these to be gone by december to get on with my life. Please Help, as i,m at my wits end and would really appriciate anyone who can help. Kind regard,s Claire

Hi All, i have an account with santander with an overdraft of 600 paunds. used the 450 paunds and totally forget for a very long time like a 1 year , then with a charges the amount reached 1101.06 , passed to a collection agency . in april i settled an agreement to pay the full amount in 6 months , but i couldnt sleep at night so i decide to pay the full amount by july. and finished. but when i checked my credit report is still showing as default and on the details showing the only first instalments i paid in april please help any suggestions ? what can i do ? since i never been throught this whole my life