Hi, Can someone please help with this issue!!! I received a letter from my mortgage provider, stating that they had received a letter from my Ground rent company,showing that I was owing arrears for 2 years. The letter included various copies of the Ground rent company's correspondences to me. I never received any of these demands and on close inspection, noticed that all the letters had been sent to my previous address. I have previously been receiving letters from my Ground rent company at my current address and know that they in fact have my current address. They have now added charges to the amount owed because of a lack of communication from myself. I do not believe these charges to be warranted and would like some help with writing a letter to them stating this, and if there are any acts or laws that they are breaking by doing this. Thanks in advance.

Hello, I am looking into something for the gf. She took out a hire purchase on a car in November 2009 with Carlyle Finance (now MotoNovo). in April 2011 she telephoned them to say that she was entering into financial difficulties, she wanted to explore taking lower payments, this was due to a gap in teaching contracts between then and July, she wanted to take a payment holiday. Obviously this wasn't acceptable and they offered 3 months @ 50% and to make up the payments over 4 months, totalling £242 per month. Essentially they took back the car and sold it one day out of the blue she was called by a guy from collections saying he was there waiting for her, she said this hadn't been arranged and certainly not at that time because she is a teacher and wouldn't be able to do a collection until after 3pm. In June 2011 she raised a dispute with them about the defaults and about the "aborted collection fee" which was added to the account, it is clear they received the dispute letters x2 because they've come back in the SAR request but they haven't ever responded which is also clear from their system notes and SAR response. To add, in the credit agreement signed the 2nd page was never there, infact they've confirmed that we've received all that they've got on file, the significance of this is that under "Important - use of your information" it reads " We will obtain information about you from credit reference agencies and we will record information about you with them. It is important that you read the "use of your information" notice overleaf before you sign". They have supplied a further two pages of terms and conditions, none of which even remotely mention how they will use information. I want to know - can we hold them in breach of contract by not responding to dispute or supplying evidence which we asked for? Should they have lodged a default on credit file when the contract doesn't talk about how information will be used? So far we are relying on ICO technical guidance around filing a default while an account is in dispute as unfair.... Many thanks O

I had an agreement to pay Rossendales each month for outstanding council tax, and this was being paid. I then had an issue with their website, where it did not reflect payment on their end, despite me showing them proof via an online screenshot. I had to do a chargeback to get the money back. They then sent another bailiff in the middle of March to come and they then added on another £161.00 to the outstanding amount. They then reset my agreement to the original amount each month, which i paid the beginning of April, May and June, leaving the original council tax amount fully paid up, and the total remaining of £161.00, which was their additional fees they had placed. I emailed Rossendales and said I would not pay their additional fees, as this was a mistake on their part, and received today in the post a response to my complaint. Of the original amount that I had paid, this consisted of the following: 1. Outstanding Council Tax: XXXX.XX 2. First Visit Fee: £24.50 Then when bailiff came to visit middle of March, they added on £161.00, and according to the letter of complaint, this consisted of the bailiff applying a levy to a vehicle, so fees were applied to our account of £110.00 and the levy fee of £51.00 No 2nd visit fee was added. According to the person who wrote the letter, these fees are correct and have been applied in line with Regulation 45 2(a) and 2(b) of Schedule 5 of The Council Tax (Administration and Enforcement) Regulations 1992 as amended. Now I have a problem with them stating that they placed a levy on a vehicle: Neither my wife nor I own a vehicle! I drive a company car, and that car was not on the property as I was at work when my wife phoned me about the bailiff being at home, so he would not even have my mistakenly seen my company car. So I disputed the charges, and Rossendales returns with the letter saying that according to Regulation 52(4) of the Council Tax (Administration & Enforcement) Regulations 1992 (as amended), stipulates that all monies received will discharge any fees first, and therefore I actually still owe £161 on the liability order. The letter ends by saying the account will be put on hold for 14 days to allow me to pay £161.00 in full, failing this it will be placed with a bailiff for further action. Please help! I don't know how to respond. I'm assuming the £110 fee is related to the percentages charged, as well as the levy fee on a vehicle I don't own, so therefore surely both these charges are illegal? Please help, I need to write a letter to them and dont know what to say.

[ATTACH=CONFIG]42619[/ATTACH] Hi,[ATTACH=CONFIG]42618[/ATTACH] I have recently had dealings with Rossendales collecting on behalf of the local council for unpaid council tax. From the outset, I do not dispute the council tax debt. The whole problem started last year when the Natwest banking crash caused credits to my account to be delayed and bounced the DD for my Council Tax. The payment was cancelled and completely my fault, I forgot to set it back up and/or make payment. A Liability Order was obtained and I made a payment arrangement with the Council to pay monthly however I was unable to do the special arrangment by DD and had to call each month to pay by card - again something I forgot to do. At the end of February I was at work and my sister called me as she had just arrived home to a man leaving our property and getting back in his car. When she approached the house he got out his car and asked her if I lived there. She confirmed I did and that I was her brother. He then proceeded to tell her that he was there to collect unpaid council tax and that I need to contact him. He even provided her with the approximate balance. He had posted a letter through the door (a scan is attached below). I tried to call their office that evening but the automated system stated that I need to deal with the Baliff direct. The following day I tried to call his mobile but it rang and then went to voicemail. I tried several more times over the next couple days but each time he wouldn't answer. I then decided to simply make the payment of the debt so used their automated payment line and paid £465.40 as I was unable to ascertain his fees as he wouldn't answer my calls and had neglected to itemise them on the 1st visit letter. Oh and they charge you 80p to pay by Debit Card! Last night I returned home to a hand delivered letter on the floor. (a copy attached below). It's titled Notice of Distress and he has apparantly detailed a car on the inventory. (No one was in all day so he has not had access inside the house. He has now claimed that there was £24.10 outstanding on the client debt (I paid the full amount that he specified previously) the 1st visit fee of £24.50 2nd visit fee of £18.00 levy fee of £28.50 He puts the total at, which is hard to read because of his handwriting, £94.60 which doesn't even add up correctly! Firstly, I am going to find out what the client debt amount is, but more importantly he has charged the levy fee and 2nd visit fee at the same time but from reading on here, he cannot do this. More importantly the vehicle he has listed along with registration number is driven by my sister and owned by our father and best of all, when he visited the car was 30 miles away at my sisters workplace so not sure how he has levied on it when it wasn't there. He must have taken note of it on his first visit when he saw her getting out the car. I have CCTV on my house and have found the footage of him arriving at 12:07pm and sits in his car outside my house for about 5 or 6 minutes. He then gets out and approaches the front door carrying the letter. He looks through the door before sealing the envelope and appearing to put pressure on the door to see if it would open before posting the letter. The footage also shows the driveway and roadway around the house and confirms that no vehicles are parked there. I did last night pay the amount he has stated to prevent any action but intend to claim back any unlawful fees. 1. Did the Bailiff commit an offense by discussing my personal details with my sister? 2. On his first hand delivered letter he states the amount due and simply states 'PLUS COSTS' - Doesn't he have to list the costs for it to be valid? 3. From reading the forum, they are not allowed to charge payment fees like the Debit Card Fee, is there any case law etc on this? 4. Can they levy on a car that is not even there? 5. Can they levy on a car which they have reasonable evidence that it may not belong to the debtor? 6. Has the bailiff committed any criminal offense - Was thinking fraud? 7. How best should I proceed - I submitted this to the bailliff company last night:

Hello all, I have started a new thread because my previous was quite long and I had the issue confused. Had a HP agreement with MotoNovo in November 2009, the car was taken in June 2012. I have attached the latest balance sheet. It appears from my calculations that over a 3rd WAS paid by £4! This does include taking into account refunding all of the charges and the option to purchase fee. [ATTACH=CONFIG]45657[/ATTACH] MotoNovo in their "final response" say that they never took the option to purchase fee but it is clearly deducted from the agreement and then refunded onto the account the month after the car was taken. Could someone just double check my figures here? The agreement says the 3rd is £2873.03 I have calculated; TOTAL PAID £2661.54 CHARGES £86.90 OPTION TO PURCHASE FEE £129.57 TOTAL INC ABOVE £2878.01 The car was taken from private property following this being sent; When the guy arrived he was asked not to take the car because we didn't want to terminate the agreement any longer, this was because we'd taken advice to go back to the finance company, he said tough basically and took the car (witnesses present). Nothing was signed when the car was taken because we were running around trying to find out what to do with the car being taken. They have provided a VT Notice in their SAR bundle BUT this was never received our end, I expect they did send it but we never had it. Is this unlawful repo?

Hi Guys, Just hoping for a bit of advice and trying to make this post as short and sweet as possible Moved into a property on 30th July 2010. Deposit was protected under the DPS custodial Scheme. Never received Prescribed information. Lots of problems with house, drains in disrepair, ceilings falling down the lot. Anyway, after numerous disagreements with Managing Agent and landlady they issued us with a section 21 notice requiring possession back in December 2011 requiring possession by the 29th February 2012. We had had enough so decided to move out a couple of days before the 29th February 2012. Landlady initiated eviction proceedings against us even though we had moved out, I went to court to argue these as they were trying to charge me for it. I lost at the hearing although I think I can see what the judge was doing as if he had set it aside we would technically still be liable for the rent. The thing is as part of my defense I claimed that the section 21 was invalid as we hadn't been provided with the prescribed information as per the housing act 2004 etc, just before we went into the hearing the managing agent gave me a load of documents and in it were the PI information. However, the PI they gave me was forged. The PI she had signed as if she had signed it back in 2010 however the rules changed under the localism act 2012 giving the landlord 30 days instead of 14, the one she had signed was 30 days, I've just had a copy of the actual in force terms and conditions from the DPS today that state 14 days when the tenancy was first signed. So no doubt at all she forged the docs. Anyway, the landlady continued with her claim and the eviction date was set for May 2012 (again we had already moved out) After over a year of correspondence between me and the managing agent they kept on threatening to take us to court for all the rent that was due up until the official eviction date which was in may 2012 even though we had moved out at the end of feb. I accept there was rent due up until February however we were locked in a dispute regarding rent payable whilst building works were being completed to bring to house up to standard so I refused to pay it until it was sorted, it was never sorted and by the end we were 3 months over due. Again I accept this money is due (around £2100). I've been following the case law regarding deposit protection and it appears that our deposit was not properly protected however there was some caselaw that meant you couldn't claim if it had happened before April 2012? I'm a bit fuzzy on the details. But if the landlord claims that we had possession up until the eviction date in may I can claim? I know the water has been muddied further with the recent superstrike appeal case which states that as soon as your AST becomes periodic your deposit should be re-protected and the PI sent out again. All I want to do is put the whole thing to bed and get my deposit back (£700) and have nothing else to do with the lying and cheating managing agent but I feel I'm going to have to fight this sooner or later as the Agent seems to like taking things to court. Under the superstrike case, does this mean that if I was to claim for them not sending me the PI during the 6 month AST and I can also claim under the Periodic tenancy as well? I'm looking to extinguish the alleged debt (some £4500) The other thing I was thinking was technically it's an unlawful eviction as I can prove they hadn't issued us with the PI? I may be clutching at straws but have really been done over by these people. Many thanks ( I have attached the DPS terms and conditions that were in force between April 2010 until September 2010 which clearly state 14 days) The most up to date ones can be found on the DPS website [ATTACH=CONFIG]45601[/ATTACH]

A police force must stop using number plate recognition technology after a warning from the UK's data watchdog. The Information Commissioner's Office said Hertfordshire Constabulary's use of cameras in and around the town of Royston was in breach of the law. It said the force had failed to carry out required privacy impact checks. http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/technology-23433138 A full copy of the ICO's "Enforcement Notice" and Press Release can be read here: http://www.ico.org.uk/news/latest_news/2013/Police-use-of-Ring-of-Steel-is-disproportionate-and-must-be-reviewed-24072013

Dear CAG, Many thanks for reading. I am writing on behalf of my father who isn't very technologically or financially savvy. He yesterday was made redundant which has caused us to begin this quest. In 2002 he took out a 10yr £11.6k secured loan with GE Money (that was the easy bit). In October 2012 he finished off paying the loan. During the 10 year duration of the loan, he was in and out of work and managed to accrue fees of £5800. This has built up in a separate fee account which is now outstanding. In the past (when he had been out of work) he has had bailiffs calling and a court summoning etc, which is probably why the account value is so high. They have also been charging him compound interest on this money. Once he had paid the loan they sent him a letter demanding the full amount of the fees account, which he couldn't pay. we made an arrangement with GE Money that he would pay £200 a month. They would only accept this arrangement for 3 months, and then they would review it to see if we could continue like this. This is how we planned on continuing, until he was made redundant on Monday. The property that it's secured against is a flat worth about £110k which he owned outright until he had this loan secured against it. I am unsure if he ever signed up for PPI. We feel that we need to tread gently with them because if they demand all of the money then we are in trouble (which will probably cost more). in the short term I'll give him the money to pay the loan with a long term view of me getting a loan to pay it off (to keep the interest paid at a minimum). We are looking for any advice that may be able to help us out before we go down the route of getting a loan in my name. I have read things about reclaiming unfair bank charges and we could look into PPI. My fear is that by pursuing something like this could turn things sour, with them demanding immediate payment or something along those lines Many Thanks, Sheila.

I have a ccj that is more than six years old I agreed a payment plan of £100 per month with marsden 3.5 years ago and I have never missed a payment but in Feb 2013 I received a letter from ind ltd saying that I now need to pay them instead of Marsden as they were now collecting the debt as they were the original creditor I called ind ltd but they didn't allow me to pay via standing order like I was paying marsden only via dd that I couldn't do, I agreed with ind ltd that I would continue to pay marsden but in March 2013 I received a letter to attend for questioning due to non payment. I called ind ltd straight away as I didn't understand why they had sent me this and i reconfirmed what was previously agreed but they said they wanted me to pay them, I spoke with my bank a arranged the dd for £100 and cancelled SO to marsden but ind ltd are still insisted I attend court, any advise would be welcomed. I am finding very difficult dealing with ind ltd and every time I call the balance is different between £2200-£3600 depending who I am speaking too even the covering letter and statement have different amounts on, however I had the manager confirm it was the lower amount of £2200 so I offered a settlement of £1500 but ind ltd rejected it saying they want full payment.

I am currently in the middle of an issue with my current employer. My contract/policy states I am entitled to full company sick pay for upto 4 weeks, unless I am off sick 3 or more times in 3 months for 1 or 2 days at a time; or off sick more than 5 times in a year. The sickness year refreshes in February. I am also entitled to 8 days bank holiday as per contract. On Bank Holiday Monday 6th May, I sustained an injury requiring me to visit A&E. I had damaged my foot, and was advised by the doctor not to drive or walk too much on it for 2-3 days, and to self certificate until I was fit to return to work. I informed my manager on the Tuesday morning that I would not be able to attend work due to this injury. His reply was that this occasion would be unpaid, as the injury had occurred outside of work. When I asked why this was the case - as company sick pay has never been dependent on how and where you sustained an injury or illness - I was told the company was using its discretion to not pay me. They also said I would not be paid for the Bank Holiday unless I could provide a fit note from a Dr. I was told we could discuss this further upon my return to work. When I returned to work, I had my first ever return to work interview. I was told that I would not be paid for the sickness absence because the manager on site had a 'suspicion' I had been off sick too much. When i argued against this case, I was then told it was because HR didnt want to pay me. When I argued against this excuse by quoting the policy/handbook, I was told that I was 'probably right' and would be paid unless HR said otherwise as the site management were quite insistent on me not been paid. My manager then proceeded through the list of exclusions in the policy trying to find a reason not to pay me. ie "no I dont think we could use that reason". A few days later, I received a response from the discussion my manager had with HR. I was told the policy was wrong, and I was only entitled to 3 periods of absence within any 12 month period - not between Feb - Feb as per the policy. I asked to see this policy, as the policy I was looking at was different. A few days later I was presented with a slip of paper that I signed when I started with the company saying I agreed to the sickness policy. I was told this was proof that I should not be paid. I asked for a copy of this so called policy as I was not provided with a copy. Whilst waiting for this to be provided, I phoned central HR and asked for a copy of the sickness policy which applies specifically to me. The one they sent me states that I am entitled to 5 occurances of sick between Feb - Feb. My manager then sent me a policy dating back to 2008 saying I was entitled to 3 occurances. When I argued that the most recent policy applied to me, I was threatened with a disciplinary for alleged poor performance. I sought advice from my home insurance legal advice helpline, and they told me that as my contract says I am entitled to 8 days bank holiday, they have to pay me whether I was off sick or not. Also, as my contract states I receive full sick pay, I have a contractual right to receive this. I passed this onto my manager, and was told that it would be reviewed, and I would have an update when possible. This was last week. On Friday, I received my payslip and 4 days pay was taken from my wages. This consisted of the Bank Holiday & also the 3 days I had off sick due to the injury. I asked my manager why this had happened, as it was still under discussion and he said it should not have been deducted and he would arrange for it to be reimbursed within the next day or two. Today I received a letter handed to me saying I would not be paid for the bank holiday or the 3 days off sick. It stated that the 3 days off sick - whilst the company do offer pay for sickness, there is no contractual right to recceive as it is at management discretion. I was told the policy had been updated since the 2008 version, but the trigger points remained the same (they dont!) I was told there was a pattern in my absence (there isnt) And that I hadnt followed the correct reporting procedure (I have always emailed/text and offered to ring, but manager has always previously said the text/email was OK) Ever since I first reported my sickness, the reason for with-holding pay has changed a countless number of times. It seems that the company are using whatever means necessary to not pay me for these dates, and have subsequently removed the 4 days pay from my wages. Please could somebody advise me of the next steps to take? I have looked online and think I have grounds for unlawful deduction of wages. I have requested a formal grievance meeting regarding the entire situation, but the 4 days pay which has been with-held needs sorting ASAP otherwise I am going to be unable to pay bills. EDIT - also my policy states my manager MUST hold a return to work interview - something which has never happened. I have also never been asked to complete a sickness form, and as such my manager is unable to provide me with a list of my absence and reasons for absence. From my memory, I have been off twice since January - but my manager is disputing this but still cant provide me with dates. Thanks

Recently I posted on a totally different website regarding problems with my gym membership contract. I was very vague with my personal details (as I always am when posting on the Internet) and am going to be forced to be even more vague here. The only details I gave were my first name (which was part of my username) and the month which I signed up for the gym membership, which was involved to give a timescale so other users could help me with my problems in cancelling the membership. The contract itself was taken out with a certain company, which I named in my original post as I noticed many others had posted with their own problems with the same company on that particular forum. Assuming that this would be OK, I described my situation (not insulting or otherwise slandering the company in any way and not giving ANY other personal information e.g location, gym name, etc), simply asking what the best way to proceed would be to help solve the problem as fast as possible since I wasn't getting any luck from customer service. A day after I'd posted I received a call from this company, telling me that they had discovered that I'd posted something on the internet regarding my gym membership (they stated my specific location/details so I was fairly sure it wasn't a [problem] call and was the actual company my contract was with) and that they were investigating the matter since I'd been given incorrect information. When I demanded to know how they had found out that it was me who posted, they simply said that by taking my first name and the general month that I'd joined with them gave them all the information they needed to call me up. Is this lawful? Was I just being incredibly stupid to put my first name and the general month on the post? Is it possible that they would be able to find this out from some random forum on the internet with no proof that it was me? I am really creeped out by this, I might just be being totally naive but it seems pretty suspicious :/

Hello again, i now have completed my spreadsheet,thanks for the template . I have listed a few charges but am unsure whether these would be classed as unfair /unlawful! Default notice charges ? Calling in notice ? Instructions to solicitors ? Legal fees ? Solicitors interim fees ? We never went to court as managed to pay arrears just in the nick of time so action was stopped ! Also i have found template letters but am really unsure of which one i should use when requesting repayment of fees. As always any advice appreciated .

Hi all. In December 3rd my car was removed for alleged parking contraventions. My issue is that there was no court case with no judge and no paperwork was served to me regarding this issue. There was no warrant of execution, I was not summonsed to represent myself in court over this or any matter pertaining to my car or any charges that were on it. I think they have acted unlawfully. Am I correct or can they really do just as they please? I want to contest this as police will not do anything, they say it is a civil case and I should contact the council in question. I have done this and they say they have done everything by the law. I do not believe them unless this is not the United Kingdom anymore. What can I do about this? Can I take them to court over this matter? Someone is now trying to register this car and I cannot stop them. I want to stop this from happening. I want to file a claim in the court, is this something i can do? Thanks in advance. Oz

Hi all, I have received an Eviction notice (notice requiring possession under Section 8 & 21 of Housing Act 1988) (in fact several during the last 6 months but they were wrong and a correct one just a month ago) from my landlord. In the letter I have two months notice to leave the property (deadline is 28 January 2012). I have a one year Assured Shorthold Tenancy Agreement that will end on 29 December 2012, but I have not found another accommodation due to my sickness. When I went to see a Citizen Advice Bureau, they have told me that it after the given deadline I still in the property the landlord could sent me to the court and I will have the opportunity to to give my point of view to the judge: the problem is that the landlord could mislead me or her representative (other tenant) could destroy the notification letter from the Court so I could not attempt the trial. Also, I would like to know if I should send a form 244 to the court by today or if it is better to wait for the Eviction court hearing. Thanks in advance for your help, MoonTop Ps : The landlord had tried to unlawfully evict me several times few months ago. My rent payment is presently up to date but I had two weeks delay during the last 10 months due to the Housing Benefit payment delay.

Almost 350,000 parking fines - totalling an estimated £23m - may have been unlawfully issued to motorists in London, a BBC investigation has found. In 2010 a ticket issued in a suspended parking bay was ruled unlawful because Camden Council did not have authorisation for its signage. Now the BBC has learned 14 councils still have no authorisation for these signs, while others went years without. http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-england-london-21339117

http://www.sunderlandecho.com/community/opinion/letters/letters-friday-11-2013-1-5307722 Best to keep it moderate!!!

Ok, so the nephew's boss has come up with another cost cutting exercise, only I think he's going to come unstuck this time. (he's known affectionately as the Fat Controller!) He gets upset when employees need to take a days leave at short notice, so he has decided in his wisdom, that anyone taking a day's leave that hasn;t been booked a whole month prior, will not receive pay for the day! So, if you are a parent and have a genuine child emergency, or a carer for a disabled partner, and have to take a day off work, then you won;t get paid for it! Even though you have booked it out of your 28 day a year allowance. To my mind then, if he does this, when he reaches the end of the holiday year, the lads are quite justified to ask for the money for their untaken annual leave. It hasn;t happened yet, its just a proposal, but usually when something goes out for discussiuon it makes no difference what you say or do, its a foregone conclusion. So far he has had to pay out of court settlements for racial discrimination, disability discrimination, and downright bloody unfairness, the lads are getting wise now and watch for unlawful deductions etc. It would be nice to be able to stop him in his tracks before he has to pay out again! Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

My son was made redundant. He was an apprentice Joiners. A friend let him park the car on their drive. He could not afford to tax the car and after keeping it a long time eventually decided to sell it, He was already depressed being out of work. But deciding to sell the car really got him down. He pulled the car out of the drive to get room, so he could change the brake pads so that he could take it to get MOT'd before he sold it. Camera van came around the street which is in a culdesac nowhere near a main road. They put a big yellow sticker on it and a truck came and towed it away, even though it had been put back in the drive. Since then the car has been crushed because he could not pay the stacked up fees to get it back. Oh yes the car was sorned. I know because I did it for him. When I complained about the car being taken out of the drive. They said it was not sorned even though I went into the office in belfast. Now how can this be right. Before a law like this become legal, i thought that the authorities had to make sure that it was reasonable that everyone could comply with it. Given that there are a huge amount of houses without any sort of drive. And at least 50% of the population could not comply with keeping a car off the road in a drive if there car was not taxed. Then it was unreasonable of them to introduce a law that allowed them to issue a fine or tow a car away like that. Is this not discriminating against the poor. My son an apprentice Joiner, gets laid off and his apprentiship ditched. He has a car worth money, but he can't afford run it so it is left parked up. Until such times as he can get work. He did not want to sell it because he had put a lot of work into it and would need a car if he got something in the future. So why get rid of a good car when he would have had to buy a car to get to work in the future. Ok he eventually decided he had no choice but do you see what I mean, Is there anything wrong in that. where is the crime. Its all wrong. Those that are the least well off, being put upon because they can't comply with a law that is totally unfair and half the population that are poor can't comply with. Anything to rake in more money.. How can a law like this be challenged. Surely to god the law has to be able to be complied with. They call being parked on the highway/road anything they want to suit themselves.

http://www.dailymail.co.uk/money/news/article-2225146/Cuts-child-benefit-million-families-illegal-EU-law-experts-warn.html

Hi all, I am just starting out on this journey, I have received my charges statments from Lloyds for the past 6 years so can anyone advise on what next and is there a template for a Prelim letter