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Hi all,

 

I'm drafting a letter atm, and I'm trying to find the section of the Consumer Law or Best Practice guide thingy, that says that transferring debts from one inhouse DCA to another DCA is unfair and confusing for the customer, can anyone point me in the right direction? so I can quote the right thing..

 

Thanks Lumi

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Not sure if what you have in mind is unfair in itself - anyone can sell on anything they own, including debts.

 

Anyway, try this for starters : http://www.oft.gov.uk/shared_oft/business_leaflets/consumer_credit/oft664.pdf .

I really do appreciate all those 'thank you' emails - I'm glad I've been able to help. Apologies if I haven't acknowledged all of them.

You can also ding my gong if you prefer. :)

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