Hello, I am hoping to find some direction or legal advice. I split with my ex-husband 7 years ago and divorced 3 years ago on the grounds of his adultery. I moved out of the marital home so that he had somewhere for our young daughter to stay when he had her at weekends. I went and got myself a rental home. The agreement was that he paid my half of the mortgage and I in return didn't ask for any maintenance. I was somewhat shocked this week when the mortgage company wrote to me this week at my new address which they didn't have the details to get in touch with them. I asked my ex if he knew what it was about. As always he said not to bother speaking to them as everything was ok. Curiosity got the better and I called them, I was horrified to learn that the property is in severe arrears and legal action has started to get the property back! when I spoke with my ex he tried to claim that everything was ok and he will pay all the money back. I know that this will not happen as the arrears are far too high and if one payment is missed then the court will enforce the order. I have asked my ex to sell the property but he is dragging his heels and lying to me when he says he's got someone coming out to value the house. What legal route can I go down to force the sale of the house. The property needs to be sold as I know it will be repossessed if not as the payment schedule is huge to clear the arrears. I am a bit lost as to who to speak with, would it be a family solicitor or a property solicitor? Any advice is appreciated.

I have been issued with a small claim of £1239 for "decorative and improvement works" carried out on a property myself and my ex-partner were trying to sell. I had moved out of the property and my partner continued to live in the property despite neither of us continuing to pay the mortgage. She herself then moved out of the property. The works were carried out despite my continued instructions that the house should be sold as-is and under any circumstances and that I would not pay another penny into our "bad decision" that was going to probably be sold at a loss as it was. The house did indeed sell at a loss with us both having a ring-fenced debt imposed on each party of £12,000. My partner is now claiming that I pay her half of the monies spent on the property for these improvements. It is also worth noting that prior to these works being carried out an offer was made on the property for £142,000, my ex-partner refused the offer directly and the party lost interest. I was fuming! The house eventually sold for £122,000, resulting in a 24k inequity from our mortgage provider that we split. My questions are: 1)]Does she have a valid claim on these works? 2)Is the claim valid if there is no receipts as evidence of the costs in question? 3)Her new partner "bought" and installed a boiler (he is the owner and she is the Director of his plumbing business), but I'm being charged what is seemingly trade-price rather than cost - is this legit? There's no way he would've charged her that sum in reality. 4)If I did contest this, do I have to pick up her Legal costs (not court costs but advocate fees)? I am pretty easy going and reasonable and if there is validation that I am liable for these sums then I'll write a cheque and finally close this chapter of my life, however I feel slightly aggrieved that she repeatedly refused offers in excess of £130k, spent money on the house making improvements against my wishes and advice and further the "improvements" did nothing for the value of the house which sold at £122k. Any advice or thoughts would be most welcome. Thanks.

Hi consumer forum, I bought a house with EX partner ( separated over 15 years) as was in (both owned seperate flats previously) best interests re housing investment to pool money in joint mortgage as both working in London). 18 months in he had major operation + became life threateningly ill and could not work. After him being 5 months in hospital and still in crisis but to be discharged needing a kidney transplant I sold the house and moved with him to property in country more appropriate to his recovery as London was not ideal and he had no family to helpl. However I could not get his name put on mortgage as he was not working employed at that time. so I (with his full written agreement overseen by solicitor who did the sale) put house in my name only. He is now on disability benefits and he is contributing what he can towards the mortgage from his DLA and pension credit, can I charge him rent ( i am formally assessed as his carer correctly -Not his partner) housing benefit or similar to help with mortgage? I help him with home dialysis and other needed tasks. thanks for your help