I'm having a rather lengthy game of Letter Tennis with Cabot financial (Europe) Ltd at the moment.. The Debt is mine. Having run into difficulties, and being a little stupid.... Anyways.. Please dont judge me.. I have been unemployed since March due to redundancy.. They have provided a signed CCA.. I'm stretching this out as long as possible for financial reasons. Now the question is, there is no record of a Default being issued. Nor can they provide proof the a Default was issued, yet they have placed on on my credit file.. Is this "legal".. Do I have grounds to contest the debt as the Default cannot be substantiated.?

Hi i need help, ive read through so many posts on here and they are full of really useful info, but im also confused with it all . Since 2006 i have been on a DMP and have just partial settled with them all. Most of the creditors defaulted me in 2007, when i started my DMP which i fully understand due to me paying reduced payments. After sending out mt partial settlements via payplan i have obtained my credit report and have discovered that after being on a DMP for nearly 7 years Lloyds TSB only defaulted me on 28/06/2012 freemans catologue defaulted me on 11/07/2011 Robinsonway defaulted me on 11/06/2008 Cabot defaulted me on 21/12/2008 this means that my credit status has been rubbish for the past 7 years ( which i understand ias i was on DMP) But its also going to be bad for another 6 years because of these late defaults. Is there anyway of having them removed or the dates altered to when i originally defaulted at the start of my DMP. All help is greatly appreciated as i am confused as to which letter templates i should use Please please please help :-):-):-)

Hi All I had a consumer credit agreement with Hitachi that I didn't make the last payment on. I wasn't aware it was a CCA at the time and didn't pay as I thought the service was unsatisfactory. Anyways turns out it was a CCA and there is a default against me on my credit file. I paid it off £55 (and the £200 charges) as I thought this would improve my credit rating as Im going for a mortgage. It didn't! I asked them to remove it - they refused. I requested a copy of the default notice as I NEVER got one and they have sent me a letter clearly saying no default notice was issued, the reason it is on my report as a default is because the the term of the account expired with an outstanding balance?? Is this how they are getting away with issuing defaults without sending default notices now? Any advice of how I can get this removed as Ive tried the letters threatening OFT etc and they are just refusing to reply or talk to me now - HELP!!

Greetings CAGers I currently have three defaults on my credit score. In an attempt to improve the score, I wrote requesting an SAR to two companies responsible for publishing the defaults last week and got one response back from Cabot who had handled a Barclaycard balance, now settled in full. I attached the letter here for the benefit of CAGers similarly affected and for those who have the knowledge and experience to suggest a response to the letter http://s255.photobucket.com/albums/hh128/leonardo4455/Cabot%20Default%20Removal%202012/?action=view&current=CabotDefault2012.jpg. All replies will be gratefully accepted. Thanks in advance Mihail

Hi All Brand new to this forum so sorry if Im in the wrong place, this also might be a little long winded so please bear with me. In 2007-8 I took out 2 x 18 month contracts with 02, one for me, one for the Mrs. In mid 2008 I fell out of work and so could not afford the contract. After a few months of non-payment, both accounts were disconnected and referred to 02s external company. Due to lack of income I had stayed in a few different houses etc while I got back on my feet. I heard nothing from 02 until earlier in 2011. They had passed the debt onto a company called Lowell portfolio, who asked for the full payments of both contracts. The letters were ignored, (shame on me) and I was then contacted by post later in 2011 by a company called Mckenzie hall. In July this year, I was in full time work, and looking to pay off some of my previous owings, so I contacted them. I owed on 2 accounts, totalling, £489.32 and £452.89. The arrangement was to pay the initial "token fee" of £9.32 and £12.89, and then a direct debit of £10 per month just after my payday (agreed for the 1st of the month, paid on 27th) This was confirmed in writing on the 29/07, 1st payment made and the next direct debit due out for 1/09. So far, so good. On around the 5/09 I received a letter for each account saying "broken arrangement - default visit" and basically explaining I had defaulted on my repayment plan. I contacted the agent, and was told that all my details were on system, but the payment was not taken, and could not explain why. Payment plan was confirmed to restart, this time by pre-agreed debit charge, rather than DD and has been successful since. On that conversation, I asked for a call back from a manager, and for them to update my credit record to show the default was incorrect. Now to my problem: I have taken out subscriptions to 2 credit reference agencies: Equifax and Noddle/Call Credit. (Experian apparently have an account for me but i cant get in: another story!) Although Equifax do not show anything for this, Noddle do. My account shows something like this: Lowell: £421 - Updated 14/12/2011 - Status: Default Lowell: £449 - Updated 14/12/2011 - Status: Default I contacted Mckenzie Hall who say this needs to be updated by Lowell as they are the company who sent the action, however, it was Mckenzie hall, who made the mistake. So where do I go from here to have this updated and the false defaults removed, and do I have any legal stance in terms of Mckenzie Hall breaching contract? I have letters and and bank statements to show the arrangement made, and that funds were available. Any help would be greatly appriciated.

I had an account years ago with Capital One, which I think, will have defaulted in 2004. I say 'I think' because I have no documentation and the debt has now disappeared off my credit report as it has been 7 years. It would appear that in 2004 they sold it to Lowell. There's an account on my credit file in the name of Lowell for the same amount as Capital One and with the same reference number (last 4 digits anyway so it's definitely it!). The start date is 2004 and the default date is mid 2006! So it would appear that I was defaulted twice for this one account. However I can only see the Lowell default and now not the Capital One default.... So what can I do? As far as I'm concerned it shouldn't have been defaulted twice and as six years has passed since the original default it should now no longer be on my credit report in any shape or form, but without the original showing on my credit report how can I prove it? Will Capital One still hold any details for me so if I make a data request to them to see any data they hold will they still have it after so long? Or should I just write to Lowell and request they provide proof of the original default notice and credit agreement (stating I do not acknowledge the debt, just in case!).. Whats the best way for me to deal with it?

A company called Frederickson international contacted me around 6 months ago to say i was liable to pay a fee of £217.00 for an organe phone I took out in 2007. The contract on the phone was only for 13 days. They havent provided me with a complete breakdown of where the debt is from. Orange sold the debt on to Arrow Global, and Arrow Global have applied a default notice against my credit file. i have no idea what the debt is for, and not really sure what to do. Can they remove the default notice, this is really affecting my life, i cant even apply for a mortgage because of it.