I have a loan with Provident for £501 over a year at £36 a month and have £325 to repay. I moved house just before Christmas phoned them up and told them that I’ve changed address and they told me to inform my adviser, so I done this by Text, I had one new collection from my new address and no-one has bothered to come around and collect any further payments. My question is, on my Credit file it states that I have settled the debt, should I chase them up and pay them or just leave it be?

Hi. I have a problem and I would value some advise please. We are in the middle of a claim. My husband had a lot of debt, including defaults and two ccjs. The loan relevant to this aplication was sold to a third party. After some time, we made an agreement with this new company, to pay a large lump sum to settle the debt. It has now been settled for over three years, which is reflected in our improving credit report. Will the bank be able to keep some of the money from our claim, to compensate themselves for the deficit between the total loan and what we paid off? No one in the bank will tell us for certain. In my mind there is no loan now, but some of my friends have said that they might take the difference back.

This is my first post here so please bear with me... I am desperately trying to get a satisfied default caused by a student overdraft in 2007 removed from my husband's credit file (it's for about £2000) and was hoping for some advice on what to try next. I have already tried the sympathy angle (asking nicely to remove it seeing as it's been paid etc.) but not surprisingly they said no (response below...) "I appreciate that your situation is significantly improved since the Default was applied to this account, and hope that this continues to be the case going forward. However, having looked into the reasons that the Default was applied, I am satisfied that this was done correctly and do not feel that we can justifiably remove this record from your records The Bank is obliged, under the Consumer Credit Act, to report the correct information to the CRAs. In this instence we have done so, and the records are correct. As such we would not look to amend this" blah blah blah yours sincerely Roger Gall Case Manager blah blah blah... Is there another route around this? Should I write again to ask to reconsider as their obligation isn't a legal obligation, just standard practice? Is it worth trying the Default Notice route in the hopes their paperwork isn't in order? I don't know whether they issued this to him, and my husband can't remember if he received one. I read on another thread somewhere that they no longer have to provide the original default notice, just have an electronic record that one was sent? Is this right? We are desperate to buy a house and have the deposit all saved and ready to go - unfortunately no lenders will touch us because of this default (had we realised when we paid it that satisfied defaults were just as bad, we'd have negotiated the removal into the settlement - hindsight is such a pain in the arse!) Any help would be greatly appreciated!!

Hi, Since losing my wel paid job I have had debt problems. Barclays have treated me fairly and in a business like fashion; for my overdraft with them they made an attractive offer for partial repayment in full settlement. Fortunately I was able to raise the cash. Although they did post the default to be credit file, they did list it as settled. Blair Oliver and Scott have been a different matter; they seem poorly managed and their letters leave a lot to be desired. I did get them to agree in principal to accepting a less amount (though not as good an offer as Barclays), but they would only agree to 'partial settlement' which would not look good on my credit record. I want my credit record to look good so that I can once again work in financial services, not because I want to borrow again. Does anyone know if Blair Oliver and Scott do sometimes agree to full and final settlement when receiving a lesser amount, and if so, under what conditions? I did think of sending them a CCA letter, so that if they don't have a proper CCA I can get their entry in my credit record removed? I discussed this with the Citizens Advice Service, but they say that CCAs are no longer required, and that a loan application form is now sufficient. Are they right?, I can find no evidence of that on the web. Thanks. Bramwell.

Hi, I had a Cap One card for a few years, got into difficulty and have since been at war with them trying to recover the debt. I'm not sure how enforceable the debt is ? I CCA'd them 16th July 2009, they replied with a blank agreement on the 23rd July 2009. I then sent them a 'failed to respond to my legal request' letter on the 28th August 09 and they came back with a 'true' copy of what they say is the executed agreement but is actually the Application Form with my signature on it. I then wrote on the 30th September 09 again asking for a copy of the credit agreement which bears my signature and never received a response. They passed the debt to Fredrickson International on 16/10/09 and I have been paying them £20 per month since that time, only because I'm totally unsure of where I stand on this! Any advice would be great - thanks