Hoping for a bit of advice for a relative of mine. Sorry it's a bit of a long and frankly messy story He is a joint owner of a property he used to share with his then partner. It has a joint mortgage secured on it. The couple split acrimoniously about 3 or 4 years ago and initially his partner lived in the house and agreed to pay the mortgage. She changed her mind and decided to move away and so left the house. My relative moved back in and took over responsibility for paying the mortgage. The lender then dropped a bombshell that his ex-partner had not been paying the mortgage and there were arrears. He agreed to pay them and a new DD was made about 2 years ago to cover the payment plus arrears. In April last year my relative had a letter from the solicitors acting for Santander to say they were closing their file and returning administration of the account to the lender so it was thought at that stage that all was well. He has not been able to have his ex-partners name removed from the house or mortgage as she would not agree. There have been a couple of occasions over the past couple of years when the ex-partner of my relative has tried to cause other problems for him, making false statements to third parties etc, so it has continued to be quite difficult. Last week my relative came home from work to find a letter pushed through his door (it was not posted) addressed to the tenant or occupier saying that the lender had obtained an Order for Possession. There was also a Notice of Eviction apparently issued by the court a few day earlier with a date for eviction 3 weeks hence. My relative had no warning of any court action or the issue of the Order by the Court. He was not therefore able to defend the action. There was not even anything sent to the address on a 'to whom it may concern' basis prior to the alleged hearing. He contacted the solicitors and Santander who told him that the extra payments had stopped but neither could explain why. They implied that the arrangement was only temporary for 6 or 12 months (different people have stated different time scales which raises some doubt about the statements) and that it was his responsibility to contact them to re-institute the arrangements yet this was never made clear to him or included in any letter from either Santander or the solicitor at the time. Santander also said that the warning letters etc were sent to the old address he was living at before he returned to the mortgaged property. When he asked why these had been sent to an address that he had notified them was no longer his they were very cagey and made vague comments about a phone call in July saying he was no longer living at the property and that he had moved back to the previous address. My relative did not make that call and he never moved out, the previous address was just a place he rented at the time he moved out of the shared home when the relationship finally broke down. His view is that his ex-partner probably seized an opportunity perhaps when Santander contacted her as she is still named on the mortgage. I think Santander just messed it up but either way he is now in a difficult situation that needs sorting out. He spoke with the solicitors again today and offered to increase the monthly payments and they are going back to Santander to see if they will accept the offer. My relative has spoken to CAB who suggested he try Shelter and/or a firm of solicitors. The latter told him he did not qualify for legal aid so he did not take that any further. Shelter said they would arrange a telephone call for 5th September but that sounds a long wait. I believe he needs to take control of this situation and not wait for the solicitors and Santander to give him their decision. I think he can apply to the Court for the Order to be withdrawn or removed but I am not sure the best way to do this. I can see there is a form (N244 or something like that) but I am not sure where to start with wording the defence. I have had a look at the forum but can't see where to get started. I appreciate I may be missing the obvious so can someone give us a hand in setting the ball rolling. I also think he needs to get a DPA request out to find out what exactly happened . He can then think about a complaint or referral to the Ombudsman if the evidence suggests poor work or wrongdoing by Santander. Can anyone help please? Thanks

Hi I don't know if I can link this to my other thread in Santander but I'm not sure where best to post it. Basically OH closed bank account with £500 OD facility - Santander agreed and told us interest and charges would be frozen. He started a new business and has been waiting on first invoices which have been paid this month. Kept in contact with Santander and been told each time it's fine and note would be put on the system. He tried to pay but was refused to pay over the phone and would have to go in branch due to the account being closed. Went to branch at earliest opportunity (a week or so later) and was refused to pay in full by card and had to pay by cash. Made half payment due to ATM limit and agreed to return today to draw out remaining cash and clear balance. Again told fine no problem. A couple of letters in between to say account still needs paying and interest and fees remains frozen but when he's phoned he's been told everything fine and notes put on system. No default notice or anything. Checked Experian and found account has been recorded as "Default or Delinquent" and score down to very poor. Contacted Santander to find out why and why default notice wasn't sent and they've said it's not a default it's a delinquency so they didn't have to send notice and it's an accurate reflection so it remains. Credit file can't seem to decide if it's a default or a delinquency. We're now really confused what it is and if there's anything we can do? Seems as though a delinquency is a default without having to give any notice or allow us chance to bring the account up to date? Check My File's definition of delinquency v default: Delinquency: Credit slang for a customer not paying on time. A delinquent account is one that is, or has been, in arrears and will subsequently have a negative impact on your credit rating. This will be displayed in the payment history of your credit report. Delinquency will continue to have an adverse effect on your credit rating even if the the account is brought up to date, and will remain on your credit report for six years from the date of account closure. Default: Defaults can arise in two ways. First, for regulated credit agreements, a default may be the result of failing to respond to a Notice of Default issued under section 87 the Consumer Credit Act 1974. Second, for credit agreements that are not regulated under the act, (e.g. mortgages) a default on a credit file simply reflects the fact that the lender considers the relationship between itself and a borrower to have broken down. In the first case, the Notice of Default gives the customer 14 days to remedy the breach of the agreement specified in it - typically payments in arrears. A default notice should be the final letter in the ‘cycle’ before taking action. The default date, as reported to the credit reference agencies is the date specified in the Default Notice, which the customer was told to remedy the breach by. The account goes into default once the breach is not remedied in the specified time. The lender must allow 14 days from service before taking subsequent court action. Most courts expect 19 days overall due to post delays, weekends and public holidays. Upon default, you cease being a customer, but become a debtor. In the case of non-regulated credit agreements, each lender defines under what circumstances it considers that an account is in default in the standard terms and conditions provided when the accout was opened. Non-regulated credit agreement lenders are required to give the customer 28 days to remedy a breach before the account is recorded as being in default at a credit reference agency. Whichever way a default occurs, upon default, you cease being a customer, and as far as a lender is concerned, you become a debtor. It follows that defaulted accounts are regarded as serious arrears and will remain on your credit report for six years from the date of default, after which they will automatically be removed. Would really appreciate any help you can give! Thanks

Hi just hoping for some advice please. My OH has had a default recorded on his credit file by santander. He closed his account in March with a £500 overdraft remaining. He started a new business and been in contact with them since updating them as he was waiting on first invoices being paid. He has been getting letters saying he needed to pay £520 as the account was still open but frozen so no interest or fees etc would be added but nothing else and each time he's called they've said it's fine and will put notes on the system - no-one has told him he would be getting a default or anything like that. Anyway the invoices were paid this month and he called Santander to clear the balance but they said they could not accept payment since the account was closed he'd have to go in branch. He went in branch yesterday which was the earliest he could due to work. They told him he would have to pay by cash. So he paid half (£260) and agreed to go back today to pay the remaining half. (This was due to ATM £300 withdrawal limit) The lady told him that was fine and she'd put a note on the account. Again no mention of default or anything. He went on Experian last night to find that a default has been put on his account in the last week. Is there anything we can do about this? We haven't had any default notices and done everything we could to update and each time been told over the phone that it's fine and the account is frozen. He's called today and been told the account is delinquent so he'll have to speak to complaints. Are there different rules for overdrafts ie do they not have to send default notices or anything? Could it be that they couldn't send a default notice for the same reason they couldn't take payment by card and something to do with the account being closed/frozen? We still have the remaining £250 to pay that we have to go back to branch and pay by cash again. Should we do this or wait until complaint outcome? Thanks for your help x

I have a joint mortgage with my sister or rather a remortgage, of 87000, We have kept our payments up to date, until I took sick, and have been off work with PTSD, stress/depression, and am currently waiting for treatment. My sister rang them, and she had to phone the CCCS and get a number or something, so that Santander knew that we had spoken to someone about our situation. The woman suggested we paid £50 off a month, we usually pay £591. So we actually paid £200 off for the last two months. Now we both have received letters today, saying that unless we pay the arrears within the next seven days, we will get a visit from a field person. As far as we were concerned we thought this arrangement was for 3 months, and we had paid over the amount they suggested, and the interest was frozen, with no charges. But they say we owe them over £758.00 This has us very confused and frightened, as money is very tight, and we have our essentials to pay for. Does one dept not talk to the other..

Hi I hope I'm On the right thread ...I sent in the reclaim letter to Santander regarding my arrears fee charges (Mortgage) and they've replied with a standard terms and conditions in contract letter could you please advise as to my next course of action please

Hi everyone! New business account holder here hoping to get advice! I set up a monthly standing order last year and the money left my account in Nov and Dec of 2015. From Jan 2016 until now I've been paying this particular expense via chip and pin. Honestly completely forgot about the standing order and the Bank never attempted to take out the funds strangely enough. Today I discover that a standing order of £700 was taken out of the account on Friday for that particular expense, which caught me by surprise. Called the vendor to ask for a refund (as I've already paid for the month) and they say it's not reflecting in their system. To cut the long story short, this vendor has changed their account number without informing me and now my money is in a holding account. Bank has told me to call back in 2 days to get a chaser pin to pass on to the company and the company will then pass this to their Finance team? This can take up to 21 business days I was told. My question is: Am I wrong in requesting for this payment to be recalled Asap? Everyone has been so nonchalant about this. No accountability what so ever!

I've just received a letter from Santander regarding PPI on an old Evans store card I took out in the late 1990's. I'm not sure how they found me as the account has been closed since about 2007 and I've moved address a couple of times since then, anyway this letter was a surprise to me, i've didn't think a company would tell you they might owe you money! Sin the late 90's I was young, and think I was in my first job when I took 3 store cards run by GE capital? They were all taken out in-store with the assistant filling in the form for me. In about 2001 I got into financial difficulties, and ended up with a debt management company, who (I'm pretty sure) stopped the PPI payments, so I may have only been paying the PPI for 2-3 years at £2-3 a month (this amount is a guess). I do have some statements for this Evans account, but only from 2004-2006, and randomly one of them shows 'account cover premium' at £2.15, the others only show 'interest', the balance at this time was in the £200's. The letter I've received from Santander, says that the FCA has requested all banks to review PPI complaints that were investigated and rejected prior to Dec 2010. It says I raised a PPI complaint in 2007, but it was rejected - I don't remember doing this at all! apparently Santander have started to re-asses it, and they need more info. They have enclosed a form to fill in and return, with lots of questions like: How was the policy sold. Did anyone recommend I took the policy. Did I ever claim on it. Was I working. Did I have any health problems. What happened when I took the policy. I've never Sar'd Evans (GE Capital) or Santander, so don't know any figures. Should I just fill in this form and return (any tips?), or will I need to SAR them?

Asked for a copy of agreement, a CCA. A Santander credit card, being chased through Robinson Way, solicitors. They have sent a reconstituted agreement. This has NO date, nor my SIGNATURE. In fact, it is just a normal looking letter. I thought it should be at least a photocopy of something I would have signed. Is this a valid response to my request? Should a CCA request mean they send something with a datestamp, and a signature? I can upload their letter if it helps.

This is a strange one, hope someone can help. I took advantage of an offer to switch current accounts for circa £100 in May 2009. I filled in the forms, my salary and debits moved across. The problem was that Santander did not agree to match my existing overdraft (£500) and didnt communicate that the overdraft had not been granted but moved my finances over anyway. So I quickly moved back to my previous account and requested that Santander close the new current account. I recall speaking to a manager on the phone, who agreed to close the account with no charges and in exchange they would not pay me the £100 switching fee. They admitted that they should have communicated better and did not make me aware that any adverse credit history would be reported. However, I have downloaded an equifax report to discover that it is still showing as late payments from May 2009 until it was settled in November 2010. Note, this doesn't show in my noodle report. I am thinking that as I have not used the account since May 2009 it would be SB and should be clear from my credit reports, is this correct?

Received a claim dated 12/8/15 last month for an overdraft of £2675 (post 2007 agreement). After they first started threatening legal action back in April I sent a OFT debt collection guidance 'prove it' letter which I found on another thread. They finally replied to this in July by sending the following: chequebook request and specimen signature car registration document copy of driving licence application form (completed but not signed)/terms and conditions copy of an MBNA credit card statement which was provided as ID on opening the account They state in the covering letter 'please find enclosed copies of your agreement and statement' but there is no statement for the Santander account only the MBNA one, nor is there anything showing the figure they are claiming for. I've since sent the cpr 31.14 current account request (not received a reply) and submitted the acknowledgment of service. However I'm unsure how to go about the defence bearing in mind what they have sent in relation to the OFT letter, in particular the lack of a/wrong statement . There is also the fact that approx £500 of the amount claimed is as a result of fees/charges. Any advice on how to approach defending this would be most welcome.

Hi folks, I'm 14 months into a £12,000 car loan via my business through Santander Consumer Finance. The loan (HP) was over 48 months with £3000 of interest. I have to date paid £5000 back yet the settlement is £10,000. Only £2000 of the loan has been paid off. I understand that at the start of the agreement you tend to pay more interest than principle but the ENTIRE interest in the first year? Does this sound right? Thanks in advance.

Hi all I've started a complaint with Santander about my mis-sold MPPI. We were FTB's in April 2009 and being the cautious person I am asked the IFA doing our mortgage about Income Protection. Low and behold we ended up with MPPI the only covered the mortgage payment and the house insurance not a penny more up to the value of £750, not what we asked for. However I did not pick on this at the time and it only came to light recently while sorting though some old paperwork and came across the policy document. This is where I finally read the small print properly. I've sent back the MPPI questionnaire to Santander only to be told my claim is with the IFA not them as they didn't sell the original policy. ( They took all the payments for 2 years though ). The IFA is no longer trading which they informed me in the letter and have suggested that I may have a claim through the Compensation Scheme. I think I'm being fobbed off. Any help as to how to proceed would be great. I have the original policy letter from them and all bank statements showing payments etc. Regards Ed

Hi, Hoping someone can explain what this may mean. Today my wife received a transaction summary statement from Santander for an old joint account but what we can't understand is she has been declared bankrupt since June15 and I've been on a TD since Dec14. The statement is on 2 sheets of A4 but it is in black and white and not the typical red we typically received in statements. It also shows the account to be in credit showing nothing other than an opening balance dated 10/15 and the net balance dated 04/16. Of course we'd love to think we had access to the few thousand pounds the balance states but we're presuming this isn't one of those "lucky windfall" moments lol. Any advice would be much appreciated. Many thanks.

Could someone please help me. I have drafted a very long defence, but would like to consider part 20 against Santander. please help defence due in 21/07/2015 4pm The is pertaining to an authorised overdraft disputed in 07/07/2008. Now Hoist have issued me with a claim

I bought a pair of unnecessarily expensive sunglasses because I felt like treating myself. At first, I put my order in and my available balance updated from 254 pounds to 74 pounds. I wait a couple of days, after contacting customer support about an issue I had involving the status of my order, and if I could amend it, and my balance is still the same as above. There was no record of my payment being refunded in the message from customer support. 1 Day after this contact, and now after receiving my purchase, my current balance had not changed from 254, but my available balance had went back up to 254 pounds. Does this mean I have not been charged? Have I been refunded? I'm writing this because I have no knowledge of delayed payments, and am worried that I'll have to keep a close eye for a random payment. There is also no notification of a transaction taking place in my transaction history for my online banking page. I'm 17, and this was a gift to myself, and I'm now worried that I'll be charged a couple of months down the line and forced into overdraft. Any help or knowledge on this kind of situation would be extremely appreciated. I have no general knowledge on consumer rights or whatever this whole situation involves. I just want to know if I'll be charged sometime soon because this has never happened before. Edit: Also, almost every transaction I've done that was done straight through the bank and not Paypal, was removed instantly. This purchase was made with my debit card, not through paypal.

I have a Santander loan which I think is in an AP and has been for years but not recorded on any CRA’s It was previously in a DMP after paying all my creditors two years ago I only had Santander remaining, but because of the amount I couldn’t settle the Santander loan at that time. They never contact me regarding the loan I just pay the amount via fast payment every month, in the past I’ve missed a month but still get no response from Santander. I’ve never signed any paperwork regarding the AP requirement after the DMP or agree on a fix payment plan. I just agreed on the phone I would make payments every month. IF I pay the loan off will they then update my CRA to settled (which is good) but record this as a AP (not good). Which will then disturb my credit score (or will it)? I’m in the middle of a mortgage application and don’t want to see any changes to the CRA files. My concern is IF I leave the loan unpaid but continue the AP payments I’m worried that they could default me at any time. I've been paying this loan for 7 years..... Maybe it best not to disturb the beast. Thanks

Hiya, any advice will be gratefully received. I started a PPI claim against santander early 2014 for a loan which was taken out in 2001. They claimed to have settled a PPI claim on this account in 2007. In 2007 they settled a 'bank charges' claim for a closed current account not a PPI claim for the loan account. I have never claimed for PPI on any account until early 2014. But in 2007 I had taken on quite a number of banks for charges. I had a call from the FOS today. They said that santander had provided evidence of this settlement. I asked what the evidence was and he said it had the loan agreement number on it, the amount, date and that it was for PPI. Non of this information is true. It's totally fabricated. I expressed my concern to the FOS and he said he'd contact them again to ask for further details. I called santander straight after to request this information and told them it's totally untrue and fraudulent! I'm hopping mad. I don't want to let them get away with this. But what do I do? The FOS have to make a decision on the information they have. I haven't kept anything from my charges claim, as far as I was concerned the matter was closed so I destroyed everything. If they FOS rule in their favour, how do I complain without any evidence? Thornyangel

Hi everyone, I just wanted to post up this thread/post for some advice/support/thoughts on how to handle Santander. Who, from what I have read in various places are generally pretty awkward, evasive and fairly resistant to playing fairly. So, I have a SAR template, ready, filled out with my details, got my tenner plus a few quid for the PO and postage ready and I had a couple of thoughts, that I wanted to get some guidance from more skilled and experienced crusaders than myself. So my confusion, or more like unknowingness; I had a current account when the bank was Abbey National, and the account was only Santander in the last few of my banking years with them. In addition to this, I had a joint account with my missus, again which was Abbey National, which we both put funds into for various household things like bills and other similar stuff, like mortgage payments etc. Then, we also had our mortgage with Abbey, which I believe had PPI, and sometimes around 2004/5 I tried to make a claim but they refused to acknowledge it even existed because I had lost all of the paper work. I also had a credit card with them, again, originally in the days of Abbey National and again, I am sure PPI was on the card. Finally, a couple of years we entered a DMP with Step Change (Actually it was CCCS and changed to SC about a month later) and the overdrafts and outstanding balances on the current accounts and credit card were taken into the DMP and we pay an agreed amount through Step Change to Santander plus a couple of other debts we owed, the mortgage was paid off, so nothing to worry about there, apart from the possible PPI thing. Finally, and probably most worrying, I have very little information on record for any of this period as it was all paper based and I lost a lot of stuff due to flooding and storm damage, so it is ‘Gone with the Wind’ and water, and I have read a number of times that Santander are very good at being rather evasive, and telling people they don’t hold records that far back, and there is nothing they can do, so this is a little disconcerting to me. However, I have also read (here and other places) that in fact all banks use the Archiving System and have records dating back from 50-90 years in some cases and they could access the information fairly easily if they had the will to do so and thus are just seen by many folks to be obstructive and evasive. So, my questions, confusing thoughts are: Re current accounts, are we required to send in a SAR for both of these accounts separately? One from each of us? Or do I just send in one SAR from and signed by the both of us and this will cover both accounts I/we had with AN/Santander? After all I am asking for information about/connected to the persons specifically as opposed to a particular account? So I initially assumed a joint SAR would cover the request but then just figured I better check with some folks in the know. Again with regards to the mortgage account, do I need to address this separately or should they provide any information connected to ourselves/mortgage with the one joint SAR/Individual SARs? Same with the CC, do I need to SAR a different section/branch of Santander to obtain any information relating to the CC or should it just be included in the joint/individual SARs? Is there anything I need to be aware of being in DMP and looking at these dealings with a mind to trying to get something back? I am looking to initially see if there are any spurious charges, PPI and similar insurances on the current, credit card and mortgage accounts and anything else I think looks unfair. Can they start messing with the DMP arrangement or anything like is what I mean, after all I figure, if they think I am making life awkward for them, they could return the favour and pull their agreement to allow the debt to run through the DPM. I believe the CC debt is now owned by Pra Group Uk, though still goes through the DMP via Step Change. I would be most grateful for any thoughts and advice on which way folks would feel the best way to start my daliance and dance with beast that is Santander. Thanks in advance to all and I very much look forward to some insights. mrbrooks

I owe santander just over £3000 on a credit card but have recently lost my job so I phoned them last friday and a woman said I could pay £5 by a certain date every month. The call did seem a bit rushed and the payment amount and date did seem to plucked out of thin air but I thought fair enough as I can afford that until I get a job so I agreed and the initial £5 payment was processed from my santander current account. I got a call tonight from a man at Santander stating the amount I owed and if I was willing to make a payment. I explained what had happened a few days ago and he seemed confused and apologised for me being misinformed as he put it. He then explained everything she had said and I had agreed to was not the way they dealt with payment plans. He said he will send me an income and expenditure form and then they will decide if we can come to some sort of agreement. He also stated he will have to contact someone else as the £5 has left my account but they haven't received it. I'm a bit annoyed because I was happy with the original arrangement and thought it was now sorted. Should I make a complaint as I'm worried they'll demand more and £5 is all I can really afford at the moment.

Hi I had a Santander account a few years ago. I stopped using the account in 2012 at a zero balance and notified them of such an action in branch. They said they'd keep it open for me unless I chose to close it. Fast-forward to today and I have accrued thousands of pounds of bank charges as the account was 'under-funded'. £5 a day was added in debt and this happened for two years. We even, now I know stupidly, paid off a lot of these charges - and that's all they were, bank charges, not a single penny was for any purchase of mine. This totals £2500. I attempted to notify them by writing, phone and in branch that I felt these charges were unfair and asked for the account to be closed. They wouldn't do it until the balance was zero. Finally, last year, they agreed to cease the £5 a day charge and I stopped paying them. I now have debt collectors letters for the final £1k-ish. That's £3500. Would anyone be kind enough to give me a step-by-step guide to reclaiming with template letters, etc? I've recently been made redundant and cannot even claim JSA as, working on a zero hours contract for the past three years, apparently I've not made enough NI contributions. Thanks for any help.

Hi All I had a under 18s account with Abbey in 2004 which was then upgraded to a basic account when I was 18 in 2006. I then stopped using the account around 2010. Recently I checked my credit file and noticed a default from Santander for £55. I called to enquire as I assumed these accounts were now dormant due to them not being used in so many years. I was told that they were defaulted in 23/3/2012 (I don't recall recieveing a notice of default) and that it was due to an unpaid DD on my basic account and another on the Under 18 account. Neither had credit or overdraft facilities btw. I sent a complaint and recieved a call the following day saying that instead of being upgraded my under 18 account wasnt closed and another account was opened and as they are unpaid DD fees I still have to pay them. Ideally I would like to get this wiped off my credit file completely as I am preparing to buy a house and this is completely tarnishing my credit file, dispite the small amount. Could anybody advise as to how I can go about doing this?

Howdy all! Long and short of it is, for years I had an account with Abbey National, then changed to Abbey obviously. I went to Uni and had an overdraft with them of about £1500. When I left uni I didn't have the money to pay off the overdraft, but stupidly had my pay put into another basic savings account which eventually Abbey decided to swipe £700 pounds out of to service the other debt which by now had defaulted (I believe). After that I didn't go near Abbey accounts again and set up one elsewhere. The question I have is, the debt hasn't been transferred to a DCA but I get yearly statements from Santander saying that the balance is "X" and the letter says they have to send me this yearly to keep me up to date. I'm certain there are charges on this account that I could claim back but not enough to wipe out the debt, so I'm wondering if the debt is unenforceable despite the fact it's only an overdraft - does it work the same as a credit agreement? An overdraft is a form of credit, no? Any advice would be great and I'll try and answer any questions as best I can. Thanks

I advertised an item on ebay but the winning bidder changed his mind and wouldn't collect I had to re list it at the same time I complained to ebay about the situation and got a reply back, so they knew the situation I was in. I re-listed and sold it and got paid, however when my statement came it showed they'd debited my Santander credit card for the first time the item was sold but not paid for/collected I contacted ebay but they said I was out of the time scale for a refund and to claim on my credit card which I did. I put in a section 75 claim with Santander CC and they rejected it. Help what can I do as I thought I was covered using my CC.

Hi there I have been paying 40 quid a month for God knows how long on my Santander mortgage and hopefully can claim this back as another 4 grand has gone on mortgage because of this. Can someone give me a pointer to get started please. Thanks

Millions have signed-up for Santander’s 123 account, but thanks to a change in fees, it is going to hit the pocket hard. From January, fees are going to almost triple. There’s around 3 million in the UK using the current account, and pay in £2 every month (or £24 a year if you prefer) and, in return, you get cash back on bills and a 3% interest rate. However, as of next year, customers will be paying £60 every year, which is £5 per month. If you have a smaller balance, you will invariably not reap the benefits. So if you have the minimum £3,000 in the bank, you will earn £90 in interest, with £60 of that gone in fees. That’s equivalent to a 1% interest rate. http://www.bitterwallet.com/santander-123-fees-hit-60/87779