Hi, I'm looking for some advice as to where I stand on this issue. 3 Months ago I was at a Petrol Station filling my vehicle, I was parked in front of a gentleman already filling and paying. When he returned to his vehicle and I went to go to pay, he drove between my car and the adjacent pump; scratching my bumper beyond the paint, and shunting my car forward. I have gathered the CCTV footage from the forecourt, third party admits being present but denies 'crashing' into my vehicle - unfortunately the CCTV is facing forward (at the bonnet) and this collision occurred from behind, so although its blatantly obvious to any reasonable person what has happened, both my insurance and the third party are saying it is inconclusive. They have said I cannot use my witness as he was a passenger/friend in my vehicle, and there are no other independent witnesses as he drove so 'carefully/slowly' that no one took notice. The CCTV shows me returning to my vehicle, driving behind the petrol station and then exiting the vehicle again to inspect the damage at the rear. Does anyone what I can do now? I have 5 years NCB unprotected now tied up with this claim, and I'm left with a £500 repair bill. Any advice would be much appreciated! Thanks

Hi again all, wasnt sure where to put this thread so please move if needed. Now as most of you may know i am self employed, i work in a service industry. Where would i stand with regards to suing a individual for slander or liable. I advertise in many ways but one way (as its free) is social media, there is 3-4 people who seem to have taken a disliking to me and they are literally trying to ruin my business by spreading outright lies, which unfortunately people are believing. I have already had 6 jobs cancelled in a week as a direct result of the lies these few people are spreading. Am i right in thinking slander is spoken and liable is written. Ive had enough, i want to sue these people to make them think twice.

have an ongoing battle with lloyds tsb via robinson way , lloyds have admitted that there is no cca for the credit card account but today robinson way letter arives saying our client has advised us due to the terms and conditions that you agreed to when you opened this account you remain fully liable for the amount outstanding , we now require your proposal for repayments . any help here please

Hi, I had an operation at a BUPA hospital in Novemebr 2011. I was covered under a company scheme which(as advised by my employers) covered all costs including any excess. I am now receiving emails from Icon Collections representing the hospital asking for £220 plus £18 (their costs). I have referred them back to the company but the company is no longer trading. The policy was in the company name and I was covered as an employee. I have asked Icon to confirm the policy was in the company name and they cannot as they have no contact with BUPA Am I liable as the patient for the outstanding amount? I have seen no documentation apart from an invoice from the hospital produced in April 2013.

Hi, I hope I'm posting this in the right thread. I took my car to the hand car wash the other day, left the keys in the car and let the car wash attendants drive my car from the washing area to the drying area, as I've done so many times before. the guys wash the car, start moving it, and the next thing I hear is a loud bang. It turns out that while the car wash attendant was reversing my car, another customer was leaving the site and literally drove into the back of my car. Is the car wash liable for the damage inflicted? Who's responsible for the accident in this case - the car wash attendant who was reversing or the driver of the car that was driving forward? I will appreciate any suggestions and advises. Thank you!

Hi, I have recently received a number of letters from a debt collection agency, and now one from their solicitors, about a water biil. Back in 2008, I was asked to babysit a building site for a friends, friend. I lived in the site caravan and let contractors and potential buyers in to the site on weekends and during the evening. I was asked to keep people out, which I did. I am now being asked to pay almost £700 for the year I carried out these duties in water rates. I have asked the debt agency for proof of the bill. I have also told them I was not resposnsible for the building site, but they are just increasing the amount owed and threatening with a CCJ. Where do I stand as I dont have any bills, I have never signed any contract and certainly dont have the money to pay for someone else's house build! Unfortunately I also dont have the details of the owners of the house which sold according to the internet for £3 million. Thanks for any advice

Hi, we have recently purchased outright (no mortgage) our own property and we have some service charges that we havent quiblled..But there is outstanding debts from the previous owner.One is for roof repairs to the flat roof above dated march 2011 (which previous owner was in dispute with the council for). The council are saying we are liable for this work as the debt stays with the property. Also there are.Est service charges for july - sept 2012.... We did not complete all paperwork untill january... My question is are we liable for a debt as old as march 2011 which the previous owner still lived here for at least another year untill march 2012...?..... Thanks for any help...

If person A goes to live with a person B who pays for children through the CSA and person B then becomes unemployed but is not entitled to any support because of the living together rules and person A's income, what of the person A's income and capital have to be declared to the CSA? I hope this makes sense and someone can help. Thank you.

Hi I rent out my home to a charity .One of their workers parked her car up onto the front driveway .The driveway has not been dropped therefore she has driven over the pavement to do so. I have in the past provided residence parking tickets,arranged with the council for the tenants to get parking tickets to be able to park on the road which has plenty of resident parking spaces. I had also previously informed 2 senior members of staff that cars are not to be parked up at the front as the neighbors had complained that their vehicles parked legitimately infront of the driveway where being clipped by the cars of drivers trying to squeeze past onto the pavement to park.They have also been informed that parking wardens do and have issued parking fines for vehicles parked on on the driveway. When I attend to the property i buy a weekly dispensation order and park in the residence parking spaces on the street. The car which was parked up on the driveway was damaged due to a bay window tile falling and now she is claiming repair damages from me. Am I liable considering she has negligently parked as is at fault ? From my basic understanding with her insurancer it seems shes stating she parked infront of the house ,I dont think she has informed them that shes parked up onto the driveway . Parking is not included in the tenancy contract . Am I liable? my insurance company states not as the other party as acted negligently so how can the car owners insurance now be chasing me for damages over £1000! Any help would be appreciated.

To all I am writing this on behalf of a friend and would be grateful of any help as this has become an urgent and quite complex situation. My friend's husband racked up some Council Tax arrears before they got together at a house that she never lived at or even visited. They got married in 2008 and the council tax arrears was from 2005 - way before they even met. They have now split up and the ex has moved back to Poland. Post has now been re-directed to my friends house and she has received a letter from Ross & Roberts - Civil Enforcement Agents acting on behalf of South Somerset District Council. Bailiffs have also been to visit to recover goods but she didn't let them in. She has contacted South Somerset District Council and explained that they weren;t even together when the debt was created and they said that she is liable as his debts are now theirs as they are married. Bailiffs are coming back demanding payment and a regular payment plan or to recover goods. How can she be liable for a debt that was not hers against a house that she has never even stepped foot into let alone lived in - this doesn't add up to me - any urgent advice would be grateful as this has reached a serious situation. Thanks!

Hi all, I have a tenant who broke a door i.e. destroyed it. He said he would pay for it but asked me to arrange for the carpenter etc. I did this and the door got fixed. The tenant then sent a cheque to pay for the door repair which of course bounced The tenant has now ran off owing rent also. Carpentry company say I am liable because I 'arranged' for them to come out and they placed the account in my name. Whilst I can attempt to pursue the tenant through court etc. am I ultimately liable for the door cost??? thanks

Last year I paid for a year's subscription to a well-known 'internet security' software product and later realised that I had been charged about £9 for UK VAT that had been included in the price. The supplier company is based in the UK, but I am resident in Jersey, Channel Islands, an area which is outside the scope of VAT (although a domestic 5% sales tax is levied on goods and services over a certain value). I should add that I was using the software for purely domestic and not business purposes. When the time came to renew my subscription, I queried whether the company had the right to charge me the VAT. The e-mail reply that I received stated that the price of the internet security subscription was "the same with or without VAT, we can include the VAT percentage in the invoice for companies that use it to deduct from local taxes. In your case for the Channel Islands, the price is in full with 0% VAT." Consequently I declined to renew my subscription, not only because of the VAT issue, but because I thought they were overcharging for their product anyway. I have since come across the EU rules on 'Electronically Supplied Services' that came into force in 2003. On the face of it, 'downloaded software (including updates of software)' clearly seems to be covered by this definition. However, having read the information sheet provided by HM Revenue & Customs, I am still not sure whether or not a UK company supplying software to a Channel Islands non-business customer is obliged to add UK VAT and am therefore hoping that CAG members might be able to enlighten me a bit further. I am sorry but I am being prevented by petty board rules from including the appropriate link to the 11-page HM R&C information sheet with this message, but below I have quoted some extracts. There seems to be a contradiction in the HM R&C rules. On the one hand, they state that the use and enjoyment provisions do not apply where (amongst other things) "the supply is to a private individual or non-business organisation..." (page 6 of 11). This would appear to mean that I would indeed be liable to pay UK VAT even though I am using and enjoying the product outside of the EU. On the other hand, it states at the top of page 2 that "if you are a UK supplier of these services, you will no longer be required to account for VAT on supplies to: businesses in other Member States or non-EU customers (except, in certain circumstances, where they are used and enjoyed in the UK)." Note that it doesn't specify that the non-EU customers have to be business ones. This sounds more promising. Furthermore, it states the following at the top of page 4: "The place of supply is where the customer belongs when electronically supplied services are received by: any customer who belongs outside the EU or a customer who belongs in a Member State, but in a different country (EU or non-EU) to the supplier, and who receives the supply for business purposes or a private individual or non-business organisation who belongs in a Member State, when supplied by a non-EU business." It goes on to add that "supplies by UK providers to customers in the first two categories above are not subject to UK VAT because they are outside its scope." Therefore I take the above to mean that even if I don't qualify under the use and enjoyment provisions, I should still be exempt from paying UK VAT for my internet security under the place of supply provisions, because I am a customer who belongs outside the EU. What does everyone else think?

A friend of mine recently took out some insurance with Octagon Group. As he didn't have fund in his account I allowed him to use my account to set up a direct debit and he would then repay me each month. Since then, he has moved to Australia and cancelled his insurance policy. I am now receiving letters saying I am liable to pay the outstanding balance, which was left over from the early settlement. Am I liable for these repayments or do they have to contact the policy holder for the repayments? Thanks.

I would really appreciate some advice. I had a debt with Littlewoods which was passed to Lowell in 2009 and I paid this in full by March 2012. Yesterday I received a letter from Transcom on behalf of Arrow Global chasing a Littlewoods debt. I rang Transcom 6th June (call recorded their end) and went ballistic stating that I had already paid a debt to Littlewoods and that it was satisifed. I came home last night and found all the paperwork and this morning I rang Lowell who confirmed yes I was right it was paid in full and they are sending me a letter to confirm this for my records. I rang Transcom this morning (call recorded their end) and told them I did not owe Littlewoods anything and that I had spoken with Lowell this morning who confirmed the debt was clear. I again went off at Transcom stating that them writing to me about a debt I had already paid was disgusting etc etc. They stated they would refer it back to Littlewoods. What concerned me is that the Account numbers were very different and I advised Transcom of this and disputed the debt. After the call, I checked my garage as I knew I had some old paperwork in there regarding debts. I found a letter dated 2002 regarding the debt Transcom are trying to chase me for with the account number and the exact amount they are asking for which is £504.47. I moved in 2004 and have been in the same house ever since and always been on the electoral roll and have subsequently paid a lot of my debts off. I have a letter from Transcom out of the blue (8 years after I moved to my current home) asking for £504.47. I have not acknowledged the debt with Transcom as until this morning I honestly believed it was concerning the Littlewoods debt I had paid. Interestingly, they allowed me to have another account in 2007 when I obviously had a debt with them back in 2002 (date of the last correspondence I could find). WHAT DO I DO? Am I obliged to pay this after all these years. Please advise.