PartridgeMan
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I was not aware of the arrears and they have come as a shock, as explained in my original post this has only been brought to my attention with the issuing of a section 8 notice shortly after being told she wants to sell the property. I have also now realised that my deposit has not been protected. Does this affect matters at all?
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I rent a house from a private landlord and have done so for 3 years or so. We did have a good relationship until recently when she informed me she wants to sell the property. She asked me if the rent was up to date and I said it was as far as I was aware. I have now been issued with a section 8 notice out of the blue, stating rent arrears as the reason, but the arrears are from January and March this year and it is the first I knew of this. Additionally, there was no tenancy agreement in place for that period. I had an AST for the first year, when that expired a new one was not put in place (we had a relaxed landlord/tenant relationship) until a couple of months ago when a new one was issued. My questions are, should I have been formally advised of the arrears before a section 8 was issued? Does it make any difference that no tenancy agreement was in place for the period when the arrears have occurred? Thank you for your help.
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