I rent a house from a private landlord and have done so for 3 years or so. We did have a good relationship until recently when she informed me she wants to sell the property. She asked me if the rent was up to date and I said it was as far as I was aware. I have now been issued with a section 8 notice out of the blue, stating rent arrears as the reason, but the arrears are from January and March this year and it is the first I knew of this.
Additionally, there was no tenancy agreement in place for that period. I had an AST for the first year, when that expired a new one was not put in place (we had a relaxed landlord/tenant relationship) until a couple of months ago when a new one was issued.
My questions are, should I have been formally advised of the arrears before a section 8 was issued? Does it make any difference that no tenancy agreement was in place for the period when the arrears have occurred?
Thank you for your help.