In order not to be hit by a potential increase in VED VW owners are effectively being forced into having any software fix. A fix that could, if as some of the forums are speculating, knock up to 30 BHP off the 170BHP version engine. Whilst this is speculation at present, it does present a worrying prospect, owners bought vehicles expecting a certain level of performance. A fix that potentially has that much of an adverse effect would leave me very angry indeed.

Hi all. My Golf is one of those affected by this and I admit I'm worried. Until this all blew up I was (and still am) happy with the overall performance/economy of my car however if the fix is going to affect either negatively then surely it ceases to meet the specification the car was sold under. The fact that VW were aware of the defeat software, in my opinion, means that they knowingly mislead potential customers with their emissions data. Surely that must have a knock on effect on the validity of any credit agreement? I should make it clear that I do NOT advocate witholding payments because of this. Potentially then owners of affected vehicles are in a no win situation; either they don't have the software in their cars updated and take a hit on any residual value and are potentially hit by an increase in vehicle excise duty or they do have the software update and face a reduction in the performance/economy they're used to. I think I'm going to wait and find out what the options are and find out (via an independent source) how the software fix affects performance before doing anything. Ultimately all I want is the vehicle that I thought I was buying.

Hi, to follow up on this thread. RBS were the original holders of my brother's loan. They have now made a settlement offer but are saying they will contact the company they sold the debt to and will forward the amount agreed to them. Are RBS allowed to do this? If so what are the ramifications? Can this be considered a full and final payment? What happens if the original company RBS sold the debt on to has sold it on, won't that just line the pockets of the original DCA and leave my brother in the same position he's in at the moment? I'm tempted to tell my brother not to accept this offer on the terms RBS are offering as I don't think it will resolve the outstanding debt. Can anybody help please?

Hi Firstship, Thank you for your advice. I'll get on to that immediately. Tashmann

Hi DJ, Thanks for the prompt reply. Apparently the loan was applied for over the phone. No application form was ever sent and the only evidence there is is the credit agreement. The insurance section has no signature just a machine printed name in the appropriate box. The problem I have is that the loan is now in the hands of a debt collection agency who are pushing for the full amount, including the protection insurance. Because I believe my brother was missold this ppi I don't see that the debt collection agency have any right to demand payment on that part of the defaulted loan. I'm not sure how he stands legally on this. If the ppi was missold and it can be proved as such then the credit agreement cannot be correct and therefore unenforcible in its current form.

Hi, This is my first post here so apologies if I'm going over old ground. I'm trying to sort out the mess my brother has landed himself in. He took out a loan with Sainsbury's Bank back in November 04. He was told he had to have payment protection insurance on this loan. This, including interest added just over £9K to the original loan. He has since defaulted on the loan and it's in the hands of a DCA now. My question is, if this ppi should have been optional and he was told it was compulsory then was it missold? If so, how does this affect the defaulted loan? Hope someone can help. Thanks in advance. Tashmann