A couple of years ago, my ex-landlord agreed to settle a dispute out of court by paying me £10 a month by direct bank transfer, till he had paid £300 in total.
I have just checked my old bank statements, and discovered that he made his first four £10 payments, and has not made a payment since.
Knowing him as I do, I don't believe that this was an accident.
Would I be within my rights to recommence the previous legal action, deducing £40 from the amount previously sought, and adding on the costs of the new legal action?
Or would the court expect me to first contact my ex-landlord and give him the opportunity to settle the outstanding debt?
I would far prefer the former, as my landlord is a rude and aggressive person who would probably mess me around further.
Just a further thought -
If I were to give him a non-negotiable deadline by which to pay the outstanding balance (say, a month), would that be likely to be deemed reasonable by the court, given that the entire debt should have been paid off by now?