What's the legal position with having to declare who was driving at the time a PCN was attached to my car? The PCN was due to a ticket blowing upside down when closing the door. The correct amount was paid and I have the ticket that was purchased at the time. So far I have received a couple of letters threatening action and the fine has increased on both occasions. I have sent the standard letter requesting information about who the landowner is etc, and I have not declared who the driver is. Apologies if this is obvious but I'm relatively new to this.

Hi, My car insurance is up for renewal and I have had a quotation from my current brokers on the best deal that they could discover. However the Statement of Facts they sent me includes the following incidents and I suspect that some of these are not required to be declared as they have passed their expiry date. Accidents and Claims 18 Jan 2009 TP hit Driver 05 Nov 2010 Driver hit immobile object 14 Aug 2011 Driver hit TP 27 April 2013 TP hit driver in rear 21 Mar 2014 TP hit driver Convictions: 1 Jan 2011 sp30 3 pts Ban 0 Fine 0 5 Oct 2011 sp20 3 pts Ban 0 Fine £60 I am going to search for a better deal and would like to know which of the above would need to be mentioned on the fact form so that I would not face a follow up of non-declaration and consequent increase in the cost. I understand all of the above should fall under the 4 year limitation. Would appreciate any help on this. Cheers, Bastun

Hi everyone, I'm a sole trader and would like to file an amended return for the tax year 2012-2013. I know I still have time but the problem is I want to declare much higher income than I stated originally on the form, and I worry that I will have to face an enquiry if I do so. I have no idea what I was thinking when I was filing the original return. I haven't earned much that year, maybe £9100 in total but I declared I made £6,500! I somehow forgot to include income from one of my only two clients and I have no real excuse. I might have one but it won't be sufficient, if anything it'll be pathetic. I remember not even declaring any costs because I thought what the heck I haven't earned much, I won't have to pay tax so why bother including the costs of running my business (roughly £300). I do want to declare it but I'm scared. I've already spoken to TaxAid in June but I wasn't able to meet with them because I'm currently abroad and undergoing medical tests. I might be able to come back to the UK in September. What I should expect? Will my amendment raise suspicion? Will they want to check all previous years? The reason I worry so much it's because I can't handle any stress right now and an enquiry would cost me a lot of money. I'd appreciate any advice or if you guys could share your experiences. Thanks a lot!

Hi again, wondering if you knowledgeable people can answer this and help me; My current employer has agreed to me leaving (PILON). They have agreed a factual reference which I have a draft of, which pretty much states that I was good at my job, well respected which I'm fine with. Now, there is a final written warning on my record which was for a year and falls of on X date. They have included a paragraph stating this and also stating that it was not due to competency. They add that there have been no further issues or concerns regarding my conduct. Now due to my line of work I would expect this. They have agreed to provide a reference without this paragraph if a reference is requested after X date. To put things in context, worked there for 20 years no issues. Started my own company, and also allegedly worked on said company during a period of sick leave and did not disclose a potential conflict of interest early enough. Naïve and stupid etc but all done and dusted. I have 2 questions The application form for the job I'm applying for asks if I have EVER been subject to any investigation, hearings, warnings, complaints or investigations (2nd mention) by any employer, agency or professional body? - The only thing that has happened is what I've said in this post. I want to answer truthfully but is my whole working life history any of their business. My instinct is to let them know what has happened in the past 2 years but is there a statute of limitations type thing regarding this? When they request the reference they will obviously ask my employer to complete a questionnaire that asks specifically if I was subject to any disciplinary or given any warnings about my conduct during my time with them, are they obliged to go into detail? I really don't want to rule myself out of being employed by being too forth coming but at the same time don't want to lie or be misleading. Advice much appreciated.

Hi all, I hope someone can help me with some advice. I lived in the UK for 8 years with my English husband. Then our relationship went sour, he moved out of our joint mortgaged property, leaving me to pay all the bills (such as the mortgage) which I couldn't. The house is now being sold but with a huge shortfall (£30k) and I have some smaller debts which are in my name because he was unemployed (credit card £1900, personal loan £1200). First there was talk of voluntarily handing back the property to the mortgage company because of arrears so to avoid being homeless I moved back to the Netherlands where I'm from (moved in with my mother in January 2013). My husband is now saying that he will declare himself bankrupt and leave me with the joint debt (which is the shortfall on the mortgage). I don't see how I can pay back the debts (unemployed) and find it unfair that I will be solely responsible (but understand that's just how it is). I am now also considering bankruptcy but want to do that in the UK where my only debts are. I understand that I will have to move back to the UK for at least 3 months plus 1 day to show that my 'centre of main interest' is in the UK before I can declare bankruptcy which is fine. I can rent a room and find some kind of job. Alternatively, someone suggested that since I still have a house in the UK, I wouldn't need to!? I could just go the local court and apply for bankruptcy. Do you need to prove to the Official Receiver that I've been living in the property? I do pay all the bills still such as council tax and home/content insurance. Will he need to see any bank statements to prove that I've been paying for food and such? How will the official receiver look at me moving back to the Netherlands after I've applied for bankruptcy and before it's been discharged? It will be pretty obvious that I moved to the UK just to declare myself bankrupt, right? But will the OR care??? I read that he might care if I have debts other than in UK and I moved to the UK to clear those foreign debts (to make use of easy UK bankruptcy laws). But these are UK debts only incurred whilst living in UK. I have a child that I'll leave with my mother but don't want to stay away for a year or more. I will remain in full contact with the OR when back in the Netherlands. I don't have assets in either country after the UK property has been sold and no debts in the Netherlands so it makes sense to be bankrupt in the UK only!? I have nothing to hide. I just don't want to be bankrupt in the Netherlands where it takes 6 years for a clean slate instead of 1 year. Sorry for the long story. Any advice would be MUCH appreciated!

two years ago i opened an account in my grandsons name into which i pay roughly £15 a month. He is eleven and i plan on giving him his bank card on his seventeenth birthday. Hopefully this will enable him to tskr driving lessons and/or buy his first car. I am off work ill at the moment and its looking like they are going to pay me off on medical grounds. if i have to claim benefits in the future, am i safe in assuming this money does not have to be declared ? It is in my grandsons name, i hold the bank card only to put money in it over the counter at the branch.

Hi I am looking for a bit of advice please. My wife and I have had our house repossessed (8weeks ago) as we were in arrears with our mortgage. We also have joint debt of £420k, which is approx 90% business related (long story). My wife managed to secure a new job on the day of our house repossession and we fortunately managed to rent a house from a private landlord. My wifes salary just covers all our outgoings and I am desperatley trying to find work. I am ex-forces (22yrs in the RAF) and cannot claim any benefits at all because I receive £520 a month military pension(disgraceful). We have no option but to go bankrupt and the Royal British Legion are helping us with the process etc My questions are as follows: I understand that any money left over after our normal living expenses will be taken by the OR. But, my wife has been told that she will be promoted before xmas and that she will receive a car allowance. Firstly, I have no idea how we will be able to lease or buy a car unless we save the monthly allowance. Does anyone know how the OR will look at this as it's is part of the employment contract that if an employee receives a vehicle allowance then the vehicle has to be less than so many years old etc? Will she be better off not accepting the promotion? Would be a shame as its a great job? Any advice would be greatly received. Thank you

hi all, first time on here! how do i find out if my ex is declaring an accident (he had it when using my car) when he is purchasing new insurance at the time i was the policy holder and he was a named driver. every time i purchase insurance i have to declare it and it pushes my premium up even though i was not in the car at the time or driving the car. id like to know if he declares it? hope someone can advise, thank you

Morning all, I have recently been diagnosed with 2 serious mental illnesses and am starting the long road to recovery... The two illnesses, Bipolar disorder and Schizoaffective disorder, are now being treated, but I am concerned about divulging this information to an new potential employer... I have a job offer, but no start date as yet.. I understand that I must, by law declare this to the DVLA or face £2000 in fines for not doing so, but is there a legal obligation to declare these disorders to my new employer and, if I did, what should I expect from them? Has anyone had experience of doing this? Many thanks xxx

Hi all - I have a question really. Whats the general consensus when declaring past depression on a mandatory medical questionnaire after getting a job? I have acquired a little part time job at my university calling up alumni and fundraising whilst being at uni as I needed some extra cash. Its a minor job sitting down on the phone and calling people up, nothing more. Our contracts were being prepped by HR in December, but they said we could all do some shifts, I racked up only 18 hours and I have two shifts booked for next week. Recently we have been handed our contract packs and on the front page of the contract it says my employment is subject to "occupational health clearance" and included is a Medi-Gold medical questionnaire which has to be sent off. On this questionnaire is a little thing for you to sign saying your happy to have your medical records accessed along with your happy to have a physical examination. In the past I was treated for depression by the NHS and I know it is as a result on my record, however I left the service myself and i've been good mentally for a year and a bit so far. I was speaking to friend recently about it who also had a mental illness at one stage in their life and they said not to declare it as they didn't do so in the past and are still within their job now, I spoke to my parents who both told me not to declare it as and I quote "people don't understand these problems nowadays. I won't be able to get paid until I sign the contracts and do the medical questionnaire. Thing is I want to declare it as I don't want any repercussions later down the line, but i'm guessing i'm going to lose my job now as a result? Its not my first job, I have another job in retail and I didn't have to do this questionnaire so that's why i'm just generally unaware what would happen as a result of declaring it? Thanks for reading.