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Hi, I've just had a phone call from Barclays at work, regarding my cash account with them, as it is apparently £67.92 overdrawn. All the direct debits against this account have been cancelled and the account hasn't been used for months, in fact I was thinking about closing it. I asked what had taken it overdrawn, and after a lot of faffing about the guy on the phone said it was a card payment for £68 for the AA taken on the 19th of December. I had £0.08 in the account, and they have authorised a CARD payment for £68 - can they actually do this?? I know they're obliged to pay DDs but thought with a CPA, which this presumably is, that if there were no available funds then it wouldn't be paid? I am going to speak to the AA tonight to see if they will refund whatever this is for, because I don't have insurance or breakdown cover anymore and don't recall agreeing to anything like this, although I obviously have at some point. I don't hold out much hope... I'm just wondering what the legal standpoint is with Barclays, because I don't understand how they've put my overdrawn, on an account that doesn't have an overdraft, for a debit card payment....
