Hi all, unfortunately my company has gone insolvent due to a larger company going under on us and obviously we can not afford to pay creditors! im sure you have heard this many times, my question is one particular builders merchant has sent me a copy of a ''credit application form'' with my signature but also sent me a 2nd page and at the bottom that states ''Directors Guarantee'' which i can not remember seeing nor signing..!! is this valid?

Dear All I am just wondering if you can help me I had a loan to finance an equipment from 1pm in May 2013 and unfortunately due to the problems with the landlord we had to leave the premise and ceased trading. I contacted 1pm to collect their equipment with giving the landlord's contact details (as I don't have the technical knowledge nor the experience to dismantle the equipment)sent by recorded delivery and the same letter with 1pm's contact details and explaining the real owner of the equipment not received anything and sent them another email with attaching my previous letter and stating that company ceased trading I received a court paper that 1pm directly took me to the court based on personal guarantee, without responding any of my email or letter requesting £12k my question is shall I take a counter claim for the value of the equipment because the equipment has a second hand value of between £5k-£6.5k what is my liability? how can I resolve this matter? are they allowed to do? kind regards

Hi I took out a loan with Bank of Scotland in 1999 for £5000 to buy a car and notice on the agreement that I also had something called Creditcare Silver,which came to £1532.50. My question is, is this some form of PPI and I was fully employed at the time and had full sickness benefits and a good pension scheme. I also have similar issues with HFC, but will cover that in another thread. Thanks in anticipation. Barney

I've looked, but didn't find a suitable section to post a request for personal finance advice. The type of forum would be where I could post my entire financial situation (not exactly debt related), and people could offer me advice on what I should do. Does this exist here or is this something that could be added?

Hi All, I have been reading lots of posts on this issue and have been finding it very helpful thus far, but would like some urgent advice on this worrying issue. Any help would be appreciated. I was a Director and secretary for a Company that I formed in 2006 with 2 partners. In June 2012 we took a hit for nearly 60k on an underground project we were working on, nearly £45k of this was owed to numerous companys who supplied materials etc. for the project. Anyway, numerous arrangements were made with all suppliers allowing us to continue to trade and therefore pay off the outstanding debt whilst our solicitors dealt with the outstanding debt owing to us. 12 months on with solicitors costs of nearly 10k chasing the original debt. we were forced into making a CVA. Closing the company leaving myself and what was left of my staff completely gutted along with 25k still outstanding from original project. I had never done anything like this before so was all very new to me, anyway, found a good solicitor paid the money which I had to borrow from the father in law and bobs your uncle, leave it to me, nothing more to worry about now, we will be in touch. kind of thing. A few weeks in, in December 2013 I received a telephone call at home from the Director of a main supplier telling me, basically he was going to take me to the cleaners as he had a personal guarantee signed by me. I disputed this as I had never signed any personal guarantees to any of my suppliers. He told me it was on the account application form. A few days later a letter arrived from them confirming our telephone conversation enclosing a copy of the Application for Credit Account. Please see both attached. I passed a copy of this onto the solicitor dealing with the company closure and was advised not to worry as nothing would come of it, if and when it did we can deal with it then. Anyway, 6 months to the day I receive a County Court Judgement in the sum of nearly 15k. and am absolutely mortified. My wife is giving birth in 5 days and I am on a morphine high from recent spine surgery so couldn't have come at a worst time really. Financially we have nothing. I had no wages for nearly 14 months before we closed and have been off work since, hence why I had back op that I had been putting off for 8 years. I had spoken to solicitor again and passed on all information, it now feels like I am being ignored but am rapidly running out of time. In my most recent email I have asked in what capacity he can help me and I am yet to get a reply. I have about 10 days before I need to file a defense and really don’t know where to start. I have read posts regarding boldness of headings etc. but thought someone may be able to give me some advice thats more specific to my problem. I Could go on writing forever as is such a complex situation but don’t want to give information that is irrelevant. Please feel free to ask if there is anything you would like to know. Thank you in advance, we really do appreciate it.

Hi, I'd really appreciate some guidance on the following: I've requested an SAR from Lloyds TSB a couple of weeks ago and yesterday, I received a letter from LTSB requesting a signature and completion of a Data Subject Access Request Form (4 pages of pointless questions as far as I can see). Tackling the form first, can I politely tell them to stick their form as I have already given them ample information in my original SAR letter with the £10 postal order and remind them that the clock is still ticking? Regarding the signature, I can go one of three ways: Continue as before, with a printed name only and enclose the template signature letter. Use the CAG Anti-Tamper signature. Get a mate to sign my name for me. Any advice on the above would be much appreciated. Ta, Krysp

Hi, long time reader first time poster. I was issued with a court claim form recently which I have defended and returned back to the court . I am representing myself and have prepared the defense. Photos and witness statements have all been sent off. I received a copy of the defense from the court addressed to my brother (who is another defendant) today care of my address as he is living abroad and very hard to get hold of at the moment. In the copied defense was a copy of the N9B form which contained my address, dob , home telephone number and personal email address. This has me worried as the claimant is a neighbour who is already making life difficult for me - taking me to court for something I didn't do...I am dumbfounded that my personal details have been disclosed to this man, and by the court. Has anyone had any experience of this? Dave

Hi Caggers Here I am with a different case all together. This morning I received a letter from Aviva Insurance stating that they are writing to inform me that they have identified incidents relating to a motor claim or accident i was involved in have been accessed and disclosed to the third party without my/their consent by an employee who has now been dismissed. It is a detailed letter and i was wondering if they have a case to answer as afterall, they should have measures in place to safe guide my data. I have since the the accident in question received countless number of calls from insurance related companies offering me this and that. Do we have any Data Protection Experts in the forum who can advise. Am happy to scan the whole letter and post it here if necessary. Please advise. Thanks RM

Good evening, I have been trying to find out what to do with regards to my problem. Back in 2012 i was involved in a car accident. It wasn't until last year that I decided to make a claim for personal injury on the say so of a doctor(Who did not get paid by the anyone i must add!). The firm of solicitors i used were Silverbeck Rymer. To say they were useless is an understatement. I had to do all the chasing, they never rang me, when they had settlement figures they didn't bother to contact me. Eventually I got a payout and they sent me a cheque. 2 Weeks later i got another cheque for the same amount. Knowing they may ask for it back I put it in the bank, half expecting them to spot the mistake and cancel the cheque. Now I know I shouldn't have cashed it and told them of their mistake but I felt like I had one over on them for once! They have wrote to me now, nearly 5 weeks after the second cheque had cleared and basically said we want our money. Seeing as they have overpaid me, both cheques had 2 separate signatures on and it was clearly their mistake do I HAVE to pay it back? I suspect I do. If I do, where do I stand if I offered them a % of the overpayment and the rest monthly? Can they force me to pay it back in 1 lump sum? Oh and while I remember, no i would no recommend them to ANYONE!

Hi, dealing with a N180 at the moment and decided to ask if anybody redacted the contact details of the defendant when serving a copy of the N180 on the claimant? There is also (in the claim I am involved with) a matter of the claim being issued with the wrong name of the defendant. I ask because these details are supposed to be used by the mediation service to enable them to arrange/mediate a telephone conference between the parties, and I would be concerned that the claimant would use the telephone number to harass the defendant. So, better to leave these boxes blank on the claimants copy, or ? Thanks for replies, Bill.

Hi, lowell recently sent me a letter asking if I lived at a certain address in "wIles" I didn't, I lived at the same address in wAles (an important typing error on their part). So I ignored the letter. A couple of weeks latter I recieved another letter (This time from "RED") stating "lowell portfolio 1 ltd did not receive payment from you for your outstanding balance" I emailed red the following, along with my refrence number I have no record of oweing lowell portfolio 1 ltd any money, niether do I have any record of them asking me for money. Please can you provide the following infomation proof that I owe lowell portfolio 1 ltd money proof that they have passed this debt onto you what this debt is in respect of All corrispondence between myself, yourselves, lowell portfolio 1 ltd and (should this supposed debt stem from another company) All corrispondence between myself and that company in respect of this debt, proof that that company passed the debt onto lowell portfolio 1 ltd the date that I first owed this debt to lowell portfolio 1 ltd and (should this supposed debt stem from another company)the date that I first owed that company the money They replied asking for my name, address and date of birth. They know my name and address as they wrote to me, as for my date of birth, I refused to give this due to the risk of I.D. theft (I have no proof of who they are, just a letter and email). They have replied, stating who they are (but no proof) and finished with the following "Without this information I can no longer correspond with you by email. Therefore please call us on 0113 308 6035 or write to us at Lowell Financial, PO Box 164, Leeds, LS10 9EH" Am I right in thinking that A) I do not have to give them my date of birth B) untill they answer my questions, they can not take any futher action, e.g. ccj, baliffs, etc? Side note; I know for a fact that the debt they are chassing is past the 6 year limit, I just happen to hate these type of people aqnd enjoy costing them money

Hi Just wondering if anybody has experience with Social services for personal health care budget for MH conditions? I'm wondering how sucessful applications are for educational courses. I can't afford to pay for any more courses and it is helping me access my community. Any info would be a great help, thanks.

Ok this is going to be a long one so bare with me In 2006 my sole trader business got so big I needed to change to Ltd, I spoke with my bank regarding changing over the account to Ltd which as they said was not a problem and they would handle everything, when we got closer to changing the following happened Meeting with Bank Manager 2006 Bank manager said I would need to sign a debenture in order to still have the £20K overdraft facility that I had when I was sole trader Shortly after they said I would also need to sign a guarantee, I didn't question this at first until we met when I enquired to what the guarantee was, the response was "its just a formality really, its just you guarantee any short comings, although as you have provided a debenture it would never be called upon as the debenture guarantees we get paid first" We discussed the historical level of the companies assets and both agreed it would never come in to play, however I didn't feel hugely comfortable and said I wasn't really prepared to sign the guarantee, to which their response was, it really is just a formality I can assure you with the level of assets the company has it wouldn't be called on, but the bank insist and to be honest if you don't sign they will remove the overdraft with immediate effect and request payment in full (the account I believe was overdrawn at that time) I reluctantly signed as I had done a little research and discovered the debenture gave them a floating charge of the companies assets so confirmed what the bank manager had said, and also the company always had around £120K of assets. Also with the threat of immediate removal of the overdraft (which I believe was actually already in place) I really had no choice as the style of the company involved large projects and we could only survive with this short term facility. Now fast forward to 2011 and the company is in trouble and had to stop trading, the bank was overdrawn by £16K. The IP (who I now know to not trust a word they say) said "Oh no we will realise the assets and negotiate with the bank to pay this off" that said as soon as I sign the company over to the liquidators everything changes. After arguing over a year with the IP they inform that there was a legislation change in 2008 that meant that any one holding a fixed or floating charge (ie a debenture) comes second to the liquidators expenses, ie we will take all the money and there is nothing for anyone else. Of course fast forward even more the bank have now demanded I personally repay the £16K Now I have read a lot on these forums and done a lot of research and really need anyone who fancies playing the part of the claimant (ie the bank) to see if they can legally argue against my case, my case being Economic Duress - Even though I indicated I didn't want to sign the guarantee the position the company was in meant I had no choice Misrepresentation - This was going to by an argument however this is where the legal argument gets interesting. It wasn't misrepresented, what the bank told me and the subsequent findings at the time were legally correct, so had the company fell into liquidation in 2007 then at that time the debenture would stand and the bank would have been paid from the assets prior to the liquidators fees, however legislation changed and came into force in 2008 which meant the liquidator would be paid first and the debenture effectively became worthless, in turn this then shifts the element of risk on to me personally and where a contract is signed and then any part of the risk is shifted I understand it becomes unenforceable The other argument that they could say is I signed a document that clearly states I should seek legal advice (which as with a lot of people i didn't) as 1. Even if a 1000 solicitors told me not to sign, what choice did I have, the bank was holding me and the company to ransom on the threat of closing the overdraft 2. Even if I had seeked legal advice they would have only confirmed the exact legal position at that time in 2006 which is that with a debenture in place the bank was guaranteed to be paid first and their floating charge be the security over the assets and in light of the size of the assets the company held there was very little risk in me signing In a nut shell the situation would have been, had the company gone into liquidation in 2007 in exactly the same state it was in 2011 then the banks overdraft would have been paid in full, however as legislation changed the element of risk shifted considerably onto me and in turn goes against the terms of the contract as represented by the bank in 2006 and the facts to which I relied upon in entering that contract. Now I also believe there is an additional argument, that the bank had a duty under good faith to inform me and anyone else for that matter that the liquidation process had shifted and the debenture's they were putting in place no longer held as much guarantee to the bank as their own bank managers were telling people Oddly even in 2010 in a meeting with a bank manager, the position was reiterated where the bank manager (a new bank manager) said I noticed the debenture this is a "very shrewd move, as not many directors have this in place and this means that the bank is covered and we wouldn't ever come after you" that was his exact words!! So please come on people, please argue against my case as I feel its quite solid but I need to be tested to see if I am being biased!!

Hello all, This is my first forum post. I would like to get some advice on my legal position. Company A has an authorised overdraft with bank. Director A didn't sign renewed personal guarantee but signed previous guarantees. Company B buys 70% of shares in Company A and Director B appointed to Company A. No guarantee is signed by Director B as bank have not asked him to sign one yet. Bank policy is all Directors required to sign PG (joint and several liability). Bank decides to enforce personal guarantee against Director A. Legal questions: 1. Can bank enforce PG and rely on old PG agreements (precedence); 2. If PG can be enforced, can Director A invalidate PG on grounds that Director B did not sign PG, or if not invalidate, can Director A sue Director B for half of PG, or argue to bank that only 50% liability is due as they were negligent in not getting Director B to sign PG. Quite an odd situation this one... Thanks.

I just came across a very peculiar situation has any one heard that some employers provide personal acctack alarms/rape alarms at work ? would u work for an employer who gives you rape alarm for personal safety

Hi there, A few weeks ago I was hit from behind by another driver. He was driving a company vehicle. After taking down his details, I rang his company and reported the accident to their fleet manager as well as informing them that their driver was using a mobile phone at the time of the accident. Their fleet manager arranged to get an accident report from the driver in question and then arranged for their insurers (Zurich) to set up a claim and arrange the repairs to my vehicle and provide a courtesy car for me to use whilst mine was in the garage. It was within 2 weeks of the accident that the car was taken in for repairs, so pretty quickly. I also sustained whiplash and this has set off another occurrence of TMJ (Temporomadibular Joint Pain) Disorder that I suffer from. Apart from my neck feeling very sore and stiff to move, I am suffering from referred pain down the right side of my face (headaches, ear pain, teeth, jaw pain, eyes) etc which can be very difficult to deal with. As a result of this I spoke to Zurich about a PI claim which they said they would look to settle. They immediately arranged for a medical examination by their medical examiners and have instructed a rehabitation company to assist with recovery. I also naturally informed my own insurers of the accident. My dilemma is do I use my legal cover I have on my own insurance / or through my union to instruct PI solicitors or do I deal with Zurich directly and try to settle the claim with them. My inclination is that it would be quicker dealing with Zurich directly, but I want to be assured that I get the best possible result for myself. However, what I don't want is for solicitors/claim assessors to drag it out for their own benefit. Has anyone got any view on the best course of action - dealing with the TP insurers who have acted pretty swifly thus far or appointing a solicitor through my legal covers? Many thanks

I have recently sold a property following a relationship break up and now my ex partner is claiming that I owe her for a personal loan from the final profits of the house sale. Our conveyancing solicitor has written to me stating that the house sale profits will be held until a resolution has been made. At this stage I have asked for proof that the personal loan has my name associated with it. How long can the funds be held by the solicitor considering the loan has nothing to do with myself? Many thanks

Hi I'm hoping someone can advise on how best to proceed on the following matter. My youngest son left school last year, and is currently in his first year of college. However he is still yet to receive his examination certificates. We contacted the school just before christmas as to why his certificates had not arrived and we were told, his certificates had not been release because I allegedly owe £50.00 in transport fees from his time at the school. This is totally wrong, the coach fees which they refer to are paid per term. In the last term of his study at the school, he did not use the school coach service, we took him ourselves and picked him up as he was on study leave and the times he had to be in school were outside the operation hours of the school coach service. Last week I issued an ultimatum to the school via e-mail, I stated that they (the school) had no right to prejudice our son because of their belief we owed the school money from transport costs. I stated either release the certificates within 10 working days or i'll use the court process to get his property back. I would be grateful if someone could advise on the next step as I have a feeling they want court papers to land on the headmasters desk, I feel I have done all I can to get his property back including speaking on the phone to the headmasters secretary right through to writing and e-mailing the school, as so far they are sticking to their promise of not releasing the certificates. I have contacted the local education authority and they won't get involved as the school is an academy and falls outside their ability to get involved in the matter. So it is my belief court is the only available option to me, but I am unsure how to go about it as it is a non money claim and I am not sure which forms I should use or the correct process. Any advice most welcome.

I under duress signed a personal guarantee to my CA for invoices outstanding by my limited company. He forced me to sign when he realised liquidation was looming. My company was liquidated by HMRC and he is now chasing the amount due personally. He has closed down his accountancy firm and assigned the debt to himself. He is seeking payment to him personally under this guarantee I made to his company. Can he do that??

My wife, has been threatened with gross misconduct, suspended and has a pending disciplinary hearing/meeting. She has been informed verbally (not written yet), that this was regarding an incident where her manager saw her writing private notes at work (in a work document, which they said was her deliberately hiding it), her manager then screamed at her humiliating her in front of her colleagues, and warned her doing it again would be her out. She has possibly written personal notes prior to this, never altogether more than 2 pages, her notebook was once found by her manager which she had left in the office after lunch (a result of writing in lunchtimes), and was left on her desk by her manager without any warning or questions. My wife sent her an apology email. Next day she was called into a meeting with her managers manager, where she was informed that her machine was being investigated, due to this incident, they didn’t know what the decision would be from here but he has declared this to be a gross misconduct. He even stated that he was happy with her performance in her role, and couldn’t believe she’d written personal notes in hours, that he was disappointed and that it was gross misconduct. I’m yet to know what the staff handbook contains. She is yet to be told what the outcome of this is, she hasn’t been dismissed for gross misconduct yet. There have been no warnings about this, she has never been caught doing it before etc. Her performance is immaculate, she was one of the only people to have her pay increased this year and get employee of the month, she has numerous emails reflecting this and has worked with the company for 4 years. This has never hindered her performance; she out-performs everyone that works there. This was literally her manager seeing her write something personal, screaming at her in front of everyone, and then being informed this WAS gross misconduct. Even on that day (provable), she worked 30minutes extra to what she has been paid and this was essentially done in that time. It’s a moderately small company, my wife is of ethnic decent, female and married a year ago, her manager made reference the management (manager’s manager) to her not getting more responsibilities since she might get pregnant (non provable, all verbal) in her appraisal... He’s made some horrible comments in the past (the managers manager, which I wont go into right now unless you’d like to hear them) again verbal, non provable (even one, a couple of years ago regarding them sponsoring her visa, when my wife requested to know whether they would sponsor her visa for the next year, that she needed to know, he responded that, “if she told him what to do he’d send her home” (paraphrased). It’s also important to note that mid 2012, another employee was discovered to have stolen company property, his training records. This employee was perhaps disciplined (unknown) but left of his own accord Jan 2013. Also, importantly one year ago, my wife was publicly bullied in the office by a colleague (in front of her colleagues), this was recorded officially, and the person may have been disciplined (unknown), but they continue to work there even now, and was not grounds for gross misconduct. There was a warning from HR on behalf of her managers manager, stating that there was a high internet usage in office hours by employees and this was not acceptable and if anyone was found to be using the net in excess would be liable for a penalty (financial). There has been no warning about not making personal notes. People continue to use the internet for personal use, managers manager acknowledged this in the meeting and said “that’s different..” Would this constitute gross misconduct? She no longer feels she can work at this place, she’s emotionally fragile and has been humiliated on several occasions. Is this constructive dismissal. Is this proportionate and consistent when they have excused bullying (the bullying was recorded against my wife, and the person still works there…) and theft in the past? How can I collect evidence? Do we have a right to access her emails etc.? At the disciplinary meeting, what can I do (I plan to attend..) what rights do I have to request information? Can I request any? Can I record the meeting? Can I request a similar investigation to be done on a colleague machine (to detect whether this is discriminatory?). Should I declare I intend to take this to employment tribunal? Thanks in advance for any responses. Help would be wildly appreciated. Kind regards Nathan

I am a self employed Personal Trainer. Last year I signed with Fitness First to work as a self emplyed trainer there, however I was not given what was promised in the contract and resigned. I paid them 300£ in order to receive: business cards, uniforms, advertising materials, be in their system etc - after 2-3 weeks I still did not receive them and after repeteadly reminding them I wrote the gym manager I would like to quit my contract and that I am unstaisfied. He never got back to me and I assumed it was handeld as I only worked there for 2 weeks, which were suppose to be rent free. However, they continued and try to take money of my account, but never mananged to. I called the headoffice and explained the situation, at first they did not even want to cancel my contract. However, after 30min on the phone they did but told me 1 would have to pay for the previous weeks and for the next month. Now they want over 600£ from me!!! I was shocked and wrote them a formal complaint, signed letter, explaining the situation that I have never received what was promised to me and I will not pay 600£ as the manager should have cancelled my contract or he should have told me I will need to do it another way than I did. Yesterday I received a letter from CARS -1st time - telling me they have contacted me several times regarding the debt and now they want to me pay in full or they will take it to court or even worse bailiffs!!! I have never received any letters from them before! And FF never replied to my complain where I asked for a fair solution and where I explained I did not receive what I have paid for. What shall I do now? I want to write an email to FF and ask them what this is all about. But I also want to secure myself and complain somewhere else. Is there an organistation that can handle this complain? Please help me...I just managed to set up my life again and now I have again problems with debts that I dont even believer are my fault. I would agree to pay them a max of 150£ just so they leave me alon but not more as they absolutely did not keep their promise and now ignore me! Thanks for the help

I run a limited company which has a loan with HSBC for 25k or so. I and my father both gave personal guarantees. The company ran into problems with stock value collapsing and became insolvent in 2011. However, as there were no assets (now a service company), rather than throw in the towel I decided to continue as we were still making profits and still are today. I have not drawn a wage since as I have other businesses and all profit has gone into paying down creditors. A lot has been re-paid and I am now left with the bank loan on which we have never missed a payment, a small debt to our previous landlords (we now work from home) and a huge bill from our previous accountants. We have not spoken to them or paid them anything for 2 years and now they are demanding the money. The bulk of the debt we owe them was for the setting up and managing of an accounts package which never worked properly. The reason we needed it was because HSBC were asking for management accounts which we didn't have and our accountant advised this software for which he was an agent. Long story short, we put in many, many hours and so did they although I later found out that the person inputting data at their end was doing it very badly, had not set up any defaults which would have saved loads of time and I also suspect that she was his receptionist, doing it while greeting clients etc. For her work we were charged accountants rates. After 2 years of this we still didn't have any accounts or anything meaningful. We then found out that he had sold our book to another firm of accountants, assuring us they used the same software. So off we go to them, only to be told that all the data that we have spent months putting in was a waste of time and they had started from scratch, leaving us with a far bigger bill. Still no management accounts for HSBC who by now had withdrawn our overdraft and charge card, not that I blame them for that to be honest. So, I consider this 'accountant' has ripped us off and now wants the thick end of £19k within 2 weeks. So, my first instinct is to stop trading. I will make good the debt to my old landlords later from personal money as they were very fair to us. My real question is, what will HSBC do? I assume they will call on the PG of myself and my father. My preferred outcome is that they simply transfer the loan to a personal loan and I will keep paying it until it's done. The obstacles in front of this are the fact that my personal credit file got trashed when the company was struggling as I foolishly propped it up with credit cards and then got rate jacked as well as losing part of my income so I had to default (now in debt management plan and paying back). My second option is to liquidate an asset I have to pay it in full. For one reason or another I cannot do this immediately and it's likely any funds will take at least 12 months to appear. Will they let me have that time? What I don't want them to do is to go after my Father. He has savings but is elderly and really doesn't need the worry as mum is not well either. In retrospect I should never have asked him to sign it, my biggest mistake. I will take full responsibility for what has happened and pay back what is owed but need a little time. I suppose my question is, from the point I tell them we have ceased trading, how long will they give me, will they accept my request to not go after dad and how reasonable are they generally?

Hi, New to this forum, any pointers greatly appreciated. I foolishly signed a Personal Guarantee for 2 lease cars. 6 months after they had taken the car back they have wrote to me at home, marked 'final demand', this was on 20th Dec. I kicked off with them and said I had not received any previous letters or reminders and I disputed the account. On 24th Dec I then got an email from a debt collector saying they were now dealing with it (no response whatsoever from the company), 4 days after the 'final demand'. The debt collector sent me file copies of invoices that were (incorrectly) addressed to my work, along with a copy of the Personal Guarantee. They also sent me a copy of another persons PG, which showed his address, signature and DOB. I didn't really need to see this. I have looked at the PG document and it says that all documents will be sent to me by 'first class recorded delivery'. They definitely didn't because I would have seen them (and remember they even had my business address wrong). The company (not the debt collector) threatened in their 'final demand' to put a Default against me, but there is nowhere in the PG that mentions a Default. It does however confirm that it is regulated under the Consumer Credit Act, therefore do they not actually need to mention a Default'? Most of the 'debt' is for marks and scuffs on the cars. They were pretty mint when we sent them back. And after 6 months I am guessing it would be difficult to prove either way. Are they acting within their regulations here? Or do you think I have some good arguments? Many thanks.

Hi there, My R reg car was recently scrapped after suffering a mechanical fault which was not cost effective to repair. After recovering my outstanding tax, I made enquiries with my insurer to cancel the policy. However, I was informed that an option would be to continue the existing policy with a refund on my next car insurance policy - provided I took out a new policy on a new vehicle with the same insurer in the 'near future'. Note that my insurance policy was valid until May. I suggested the insurer send me additional information and higlighted that I still might wish to cancel the policy as the insurer could provide no guarantees that the premium quoted for an insurance policy with a new vehicle would be lower than other insurers' premiums. Therefore the saving might prove counter productive in the long run. My insurer also mentioned that should I cancel my insurance and fail to purchase a new car in the near future, this would invalidate my no claims discount protection which has built up over six years. The insurer took my details and 'promised' to email me the additional information. However, I've yet to receive a response. With the incomplete information and cancellation fee of £80 and possibility of my NCD policy being reset due to inactivity, i'm unsure which action to take. If anyone could please offer general advice or advise on the period of driver activity required to reset the no claims discount protection, I'd be grateful. I'm yet to purchase a new car, still haven't cancelled the existing policy, which runs until May and am still waiting for the insurer to provide additional information two week's later. Hope you can help. Many thanks...

Hi, can anyone give me some advise please. My daughter in law was involved in a car accident which resulted in injury claims for her and my two granddaughters, ages 7 and 14. The claims have been agreed and my daughter in law has been paid out for her injuries. They have now received a letter from Hampton Hughes stating that the injury claims have been agreed for the two girls. The amounts will be paid into the court office and the girls can claim them when they are 18. This is 4 years for one and 11 years for the other. The money while it is held will not gain any interest while it is held. Is there anyway they can claim this sooner or can it be put into their own child trust fund where it will earn interest as it sits there. Is this set in stone? Hampton Hughes said they can challenge this but they want my daughter in law to send them £5000 to cover the cost of any legal action?? Any advise would be greatly appreciated. Thanks