Hi all. I joined this forum to see if I can get any advice on a fairly complex problem I have been left with as the result of a very messy divorce. So apologies in advance for such a tedious first post. I got divorced in 2007. Pre divorce the property was in my sole name as adding my wife to the mortgage application would have diminished what we could borrow as her income was very low compared to mine. The divorce was a prolonged one and some elements regarding child issues are still ongoing. I have lost count of the number of court hearings I have had but it would be between 15 and 20. My ex-wife has refused mediation throughout and so we have been repeatedly forced back into court. The financial settlement left my now ex-wife living in the house with 60% of the title. Unfortunately she refused to go on the mortgage. Despite many attempts to persuade her including legal efforts she refused and eventually I was forced to add her to the title but not the mortgage. My divorce had been an expensive one and I just couldn't afford the legal fees any more. I had been paying the mortgage and the terms of the divorce left me doing this. The repayments varied from around £1600 per month up to £2300 per month. Subsequent to all of this and largely as a result of the divorce and the costs of supporting 2 homes I went bankrupt. Post bankruptcy my ex-wife approached the official receiver and, without informing me, bought my beneficial interest in the property. She was able to do this as she was the one who was resident in the house and had arranged valuations. I didn't find out this had been done until several months later. All of this left me in the position of having sole liability for the mortgage but none of the title. Throughout all of this I kept the mortgage company informed as to what was happening and, when they refused to get involved or to take any steps to enforce their own mortgage terms, sent them a letter explaining that they were failing in their duty of care to me. Post bankruptcy my ex-wife back-tracked on her refusal to go on the mortgage and asked me to arrange to have her name added. Of course by this time our situation meant that the mortgage company would no longer agree to add her name. Shortly after my bankruptcy the mortgage payments were switched to interest only. This brought the payments down to a level that my ex-wife could afford. This was necessary as I was no longer in a position where I could afford the repayments. The mortgage is due to revert to a repayment basis in a 2 months and neither my ex-wife nor I will be able to afford the payments. I informed my ex-wife of this and her response was simply to say I needed to ask to have the interest only period extended. This I refused to do without both of us seeking advice first. My reasons for this were both pragmatic, I doubted that the mortgage company would extend the interest only period as neither my wife nor I (any longer) had incomes that would support the mortgage, and also personal as I didn't want this to hang over me indefinitely. At any rate the situation is a mess and my feeling is that we'd both be best served by getting sensible advice. My ex-wife has since refused to seek advice or to discuss anything other than extending the interest only period. She simply ignores any of my attempts to communicate. There is probably now some equity in the house if she sells but if the mortgage is allowed to go unpaid arrears and legal fees will erode this to nothing. The price realised by repossession is likely to make this even worse. I need advice on what I should do about this or suggestions as to where I can go to get help. I can no longer afford the legal fees needed to get a property lawyer involved and obvious routes like the Citizen's Advice Bureau, Shelter etc. have been tried and proved fruitless. The situation is simply too complex for them to know what can be done. I don't want to simply leave this to fall apart as can't see how anyone can benefit from having the house repossessed rather than sold. I've probably forgotten detail that is relevant so please feel free to ask for explanations or clarifications. Many thanks!

Help/Advice needed.... PLEASE!!!! My soon to be ex husband was declared bankrupt in 2010. The OR has revested the property to him and I (jointly owned and negative equity). I have paid the mortgage and secured charge by my own means for nearly 3 years now. We are going through divorce and he has agreed for me to have the house as we have children. He wants a clean break and wants his name removed from the mortgage and secured charge. Neither company will do this and I would not be approved for refinance, despite paying it on time for 3 years! I dont know why they wont as they cant now go after him should any liability arise because of his bankruptcy. I need to get a consent order for the divorce in relation to the house. Is there anything I can get put in the order to state he has no interest etc or am I between a rock and a hard place? Just want an end to it all now. He has left me in debt with 2 children and pays pennies in maintenance cant even be bothered to see his children and has NEVER met his son. Just need shot of him for my peace of mind and to look forward to mine and my childrens future!!!

I am currently seeking a divorce from my wife. At 67, I am 25 years older than she is and about ten years ago we took out a life assurance policy in her name and against my life. I now wish that policy to be surrendered by her as I do not want her to benefit from my death. She is refusing to do this - what are my options and who do I turn to? Naturally, Skandia, with whom the policy is held, cannot deal with me directly, only my wife. I have very little money and I would like to know what my rights are before seeking legal advice. Many Thanks, Steve

I'm not sure if I am using the right forum for my problem. I need some advice with regards to my divorce settlement and whether I need to go bankrupt or not. When I was married to my ex-husband in 2002 we signed a contract for our son to attend a private school. In 2008 we divorced and in that settlement my ex was ordered by the judge to pay all future school fees. I found out in 2010, when my son had left the school, that he had not paid the last term. I had been contacted by the school through their solicitor that I was liable for the debt. I sent them a copy of my divorce settlement and they have responded saying that although they agree that my ex-husband should pay the costs, I am have a joint and several obligation to pay it all. If I don't they will either collect the debt via bailiffs or by filing an application for my bankruptcy. My ex has ignored all their correspondence. I'm unaware if he is currently bankrupt or whether he plans to let this bankrupt him. He hasn't honoured any of our divorce settlement or child maintenance in the past. I need to know if it is correct as to whether I am still liable for the debt even though He was ordered by the courts to be fully responsible for the fees. If I am, as I don't earn a high income, I can't afford to pay back the £3048. Would it be best to go bankrupt? If he doesn't respond to the school letters and I do, does that make me solely responsible? I hope someone can advise me as I have only 3 days to respond to the most recent letter. Many thanks

I’m not sure if this is an appropriate place to ask but I know cagers are often very knowledgeable about consumer law etc and may be able to help. Anyway my sister very recently split up with her husband who was drunk and verbally abusive. Just yesterday he forged her signature and withdrew all the money from their joint account. Talking with some friends at work (conveniently a bank) they seem to think that the bank was negligent and therefore should refund the money and chase him for what he took. I’m not convinced of this and it’s not exactly my friends’ area of responsibility at work. Does this sound true as I have had fraud happen to me and had a devil of a time getting the bank to take any notice and didn’t get anything back.