Oh ok. Apologies. And great work you guys do here. I’ve learnt a lot from you guys.

I didn’t. I used the template from National debtline. Not sure what the conc rules are

. Well I had no choice but to take what they said onboard and question it as they are the supposed experts and I’m just learning about all this

Thanks.

The Sar did reveal a cca agreement more than 8 years after the fact…. . Thank you kindly for your valuable time Andy.

Thankypu. So as long as a lack of a DN can’t ever be easily rectified as Donkey B has suggested ( above) then I am good Thankypu for your help Andy.

Ahh Thankypu. I gave them credence because it seems to be a solicitor making this claims and I’m a layman i was thinking it’s possible as per what the solicitor stated that they don’t need to issue a DN and instead rely on the last date of the term of contract as cause of action. another expert poster on this forum seems to indicate something similar although he doesn’t seem to be online since 2019. he stated if no DN Is ever issued then technically the account is still live and so a lack of DN can be rectified. I will try hunt out his thread

What I’m querying is that I thought I was statute barred due to six year rule. But my Sar to original creditor reveals that no default notice exists on file although it was sold off to hoist. I’m led to believe a default notice needs to be issued in order for termination of account and cause of action to start. on another site a solicitors firm. Joanna Connolly solicitors, replied to a similar questions with the following “As this was a loan, the date of last payment DUE at the loan term end can also be the start of the statute clock, unless the agreement has been terminated early as above. I don't know the details of this particular loan, but, as an example, a 10 year loan, taken out in 2010, would not become statute barred before 2026, unless terminated early by the creditor.”

thanks Andy but I seem to have got lost in the legal jargon. Can you possibly explain it further. also this seems to be talking about a secured loan. Mine is NOT a secured loan Is it statute barred or will I have to wait 11 odd years since last payment thanks

Hi all I have an old baclays loan which was sold to hoist in jan 2014. I have made no contact with either until this year. As I sar request to barclays and sent a statute barred letter to hoist. the sar revealed no default notice nor a any assignment of debt although hoist were owners on my credit file which has now dropped off now I I have come across another thread that seems to be written by a solicitor which seems to state the cause of action for loans in particular are different to the normal six year rule. It states that for a loan, the cause of action is the last payment due at the end of the term of the loan unless the original creditor wants to end the contract early with a default notice. is this correct? Have I messed up as my term was 5 years. Iv read a lot about limitations act including on here and I’ve never seen this discussed before thanks