Hi,
When I split with an ex I had some debt problems a while ago, and it resulted in one company issuing an interim charging order on my property. I'll be honest, it's a bit of a blur and I can't remember much about it. At the time, I was right in the thick of financial problems but I vaguely remember some paperwork arriving.
Nine years later, I want to sell my house. I've checked the deeds and there is an "interim charging order" on there from 2014. A bit of research online suggests that it should have automatically been converted to a final charging order - but it wasn't. Where does this leave me? The interim order is still showing on the deeds - am I liable to still pay?
The CCJ is no longer on my credit file because it was from so long ago - I don't even remember exactly what it was for, or how much.
Can anyone advise me what I need to do now? If I have to pay it, I can do when this house sale completes but I'm worried it will cause issues (someone elsewhere suggested it would be problematic). I'd also rather not pay it for various reasons (I paid all of the others and got my credit record straight again).
Is the interim order still enforceable as the CCJ has dropped off and no action has been taken? If not, how do I get it removed from my title deed? If it is enforceable, should I just contact the company and ask for details? (It's a debt company - Lowells - so presumably they purchased the debt).
All of the info I've found suggests that an interim charging automatically converts to a final charging order if I didn't dispute it. So what happened - and does this prevent them from enforcing it now?
I'd be really grateful for advice - it was an awful time and it's come back to bite me again, just when I thought everything was sorted out!