Also, if they were going to reduce the money straight away why didn't hey do it back in May - it was up to them to change the details and get the contract not up to me

After the letter it was agreed verbally that we would all accept the new rates BUT we were and have been waiting for our new contract since April. We have had no communication in writing at all since then. On Friday I was shown my next wage slip with £240 deducted (i am also a TA at the school) - I said " I don't think you can change the payments until we have received, signed and accepted our new contract with the new agreed hours and rates. I was in a panic and just said that. They offered to take the repayments over a number of months if i didn't want to repay in full. To be hones I hadn't noticed anything on my pay slip as I'd done overtime during these months and I wasn't expecting a change anyway until I'd had the new contract. It was a drop from 6 hours a week to 4 hours a week. No I am not in a union. I have been employed around 4 years in this role. They have basically not given us a new contract yet, but changed the hours since we verbally agreed to a change back in April. I just didn't think they could just do that with no contract, and nothing in writing to say we'd agreed the new deal in theory. Thank you for your reply

I'm hoping for some advice please..... here is my scenario exactly as it is: I work as a Lunchtime supervisor, in April I received a letter saying I had been receiving too much salary for a few years and given the option to accept the new salary/hours and that no claims would be made on these overpayments... I agreed to the new terms and was told that a new contract would be drawn up for me to sign with the new hours/rates. Since then I have received nothing........ until............... Last Friday, I was told that SINCE MAY 1ST an overpayment on my salary had been made and they were deducting the full amount from this months wages! Now I know they are not going to reclaim ages before the letter I received BUT............ I have still not received my new contract with adjustments so am still on the old contract on the higher wage. How do I stand legally about this...? Do I have to repay this amount as I'd verbally agreed to the change? Or do they need to have informed me in writing and provided me with the new contract BEFORE they made the adjustment to my wage? I would appreciate any help asap as I have been called into a meeting with the "business manager" on Monday to discuss the matter - and I don't want to be bamboozled by them Thank you so much.

Just an update. .. I have spoken directly to Barclays they have informed me that the debt has NOT been sold on to Westcot, but that the debt is being "managed" by Westcot on behalf of Barclays. According to Barclays they use Westcot as they have "longer opening hours and for use of their customer services" . Terms of the original loan remain the same and the debt is still with Barclay, Westcot cannot make changes to the original agreement and I had not missed a single payment. Thank you all for your help and advice it has been much appreciated. Q

Thank you Slick, I will be ringing them today and will let you know. I'm a lot calmer today about it I will write to Barclays as you suggest, very good advice. Q

Thank you so much for all your replies. Yes I have statements and the lady at Barclays also confirmed to me that I hadn't missed any payments, that's why I found it so odd. Barclays said that all would remain the same regards the agreement - it's just I have major doubts about Westcot . With regards the credit rating I will ring the Business Debtline and ask for advice. And MM I hope you get to the bottom of yours too. Q

Hi, I was hoping for a little help and advice please.. .. In 2009 I took out a Business Loan from Barclays for a business debt of £20,000. I have an signed Agreement and have been paying £230 per month ever since. I have never missed a single payment. Today I received a letter from Barclays saying that the debt had been transferred to Westcot and to contact Westcot to make arrangements to continue payments but this time direct to Westcot. I rang Barclays to see if I'd ever missed a payment and why it was going to Westcot, the lady was helpful and said I had never missed a payment but Barclays had sold a lot of accounts to Westcot.... My question is this, I know and have read about Westcot and I do not like what I have read and I don't trust them . I was happily paying off this loan and now this is tainted for me as I know where this will head... . CAN I DEMAND THAT BARCLAYS KEEP MY ACCOUNT AS I HAVE NOT DEFAULTED AND THERE SEEMS NO REASON WHY IT SHOULD HAVE GONE TO WESTCOT? Many Thanks for you time in advance. Q