Hi,
Looking for some advice/input/opinions on this little brain twister of a problem.
Looked at a vehicle on autotrader that was quite a distance from us, at the time transport that far was an issue. When i spoke to the dealer over the phone i waa told that the vehicle was 'mechanically perfect'. It was this statement that convinced me to buy the car. I paid a deposit by debit card, a large amount by credit card and the remainder by bank transfer. I then paid for the vehicle to be taxed with the credit card. I arranged transport and paid for it to be delivered by a third party.
The vehcile arrived the next day and it was dropped off. Upon inspection it was far from perfect, several mechanical problems with the worst being the brakes, the discs were so thin they were almost not there, the vehicle was unfit for safe use.
I contacte dthe dealer and started to tell him the problems hoping to have it repaired under the warranty locally. He stopped me, told me to send it back and he would refund as soon as it was in his possession.
I phoned the transport and arranged the return of the vehicle.
He arrived the next day to take it back and said that the dealer phoned him too and told him he would pay for the return costs. However i had a bad feeling this guy would get messed around so i paid him cash.
The vehicle was delivered back by 10am. No refund or contact for the day, or the next. I contacted the dealer and he promised a refund first thing, his associate phoned me late in the afternoon and the various refunds were returned to the cards. However he refused point blank to refund the tax and the return transport costs at £225 because the vehicle was 'mechanically perfect', he put the phone down on me. After failed contact and three letters no joy. ontacted consumer direct who said i have a case and that he owes me the tax without doubt, they have also said i can claim consequential losses under section 75 of the sale of goods act. After reading, i see this refers to credit card payments only, does this mean i cannot claim the transport cost as a 'consequential loss'? Also as a direct result of him taking 3 days to refund us we had to hire a car at cost, this is by nature must surely be a 'consequential loss'?
Couls someone please clarify if a consequential loss claim can only be made against the actual item purchased, or can it be claimed from the associated costs arising from the purchase of that item?
Thank you.