Hi again everyone, It looks as if the bank relinquished their claim mid 1997, it was sold on in April 1998, again around 2001 and the current holder has been seeking repayment off and on since then. I have been unable to trace any details of the original 2nd charge holder, I have letters from 3 different legal/servicing companies none of which are still trading and the current "owner" of this debt is a company which appears to be a sole trader with assets approx equal to the amount I am supposed to owe! If I had seriously thought this wasn't statute barred I'd have done some research before, I am amazed by what I have found - I am going to do nothing for now but should I be concerned?

Hi, no I didn't... I edited my post because a few Google searches led me to feel I may be offering too much personal info in a public forum.....

Many thanks for the replies Updated info: I have found some paperwork including a copy of the original agreement - it looks like it was a indeed a 2nd mortgage. The first letter I have is from a firm of solicitors dated 1997 - even earlier than I thought, all other letters carry the same ref no so I assume the debt has not changed hands. Two make reference to me having failed to keep up with agreed payments I have NEVER entered into ANY communication whatsoever. The original loan was for £14 K approx, the amount they are claiming is £23K+ I had been intending to buy a property within the next 12 - 18 months without a mortgage, if anyone has any advice on how I might best proceed I'd love to hear views...

Thanks for the reply having edited my question before posting, it no longer reads as it should....I no longer have the letter to show exactly when the transfer of legal charge took place, based on where I was living when I received it it was probably the end of 1999 but having thought more about it, it could have been any time up until Jun 2002. If anyone can shed any light on whether or not this debt is now Statute Barred I'd be massively grateful!

]Hi everyone I handed back the keys to a property in 1993 when the proceeds from the subsequent sale failed to even cover the amount owed to the first legal charge holder. This company relinquished their claim to money owed in favour of the second mortgage company in 1999. I have had letters from various debt collection agencies from time to time, one offering to agree a settlement but have never responded to any of them. I have today had a further letter this time from Asset Recovery Ltd asking about my identity but my question is this - I know the magic time limit is 12yrs for mortgage shortfall, but what is the situation if 2 providers have a charge on a property - did the second company's time effectively start in 1993, or when the first company relinquished their claim in 1999? I'd be very grateful if anyone has an answer to this and any advice on how I should best proceed?