Incidentally, all feedback above; and any to follow being gratefully recieved

Hi. Whilst I understand that's a mathematical analysis of the situation; does it reflect the legal position? The value transferred from one party to the other was incorrect, and I have no desire to be any more benevolent to a DCA than the law compels

Hi, thank you for responding. That is correct, yes. I guess I was just wondering with regards the legality of the DCA pushing for the totality of the value. Once the debt has been 'sold' to them; anything that the Card Issuer agrees with me after that date is surely contractually nothing to do with them? And they are left pushing for a value that has seen to be flawed?

Hi, I have one here I could do with help on please. I’ll use ‘Card Provider’ and ‘DCA’ in place of the names of the parties themselves, as well as incorrect values; so as to protect myself from prying eyes. I had an account with a Card Provider. It had been the subject of a PPI plan, so I knew I was within my rights to question its value. As such, I followed the route of sending the standard letters and then going via the FSA route. The balance – shall we say – was £10,000, of which the FSA latterly found in my favour, and £5,000 was sent back to me by the Card Provider for the mis-sold PPI. However, before things got to the FSA, the card provider sold my ‘debt’ to a DCA, who are now perusing me for the full £10K value. Yes, the Card Provider has given me the £5K back; but surely, if the DCA purchased the debt with an incorrectly swollen value? The DCA, if they continue to push, would surely have to prove that they purchased a ‘debt’ at the wrong value, and are pushing for that same wrong value, which is now made right by virtue of a credit given directly to me in an unrelated transaction by the Card provider?!?!? Where do I stand? Oh, and there’s no proper agreement either. But that’s one for another day! Cheers and thanks in anticipation of any wisdom that can come my way. Appreciated