Apologies for the delay in my response! Yes the garage itself is leasehold, so it is leased to the owner of next door for their use. I have now written to the owner of the property next door three times this year (including copies to their solicitor) and as yet have had no response. From her making her first payment years ago, that was confirmation as to agreeing to my request for yearly ground rent and that she fully understood the terms as laid out in the property deeds. There was never any contact to contest this arrangement after she paid for the first two years of leasing the garage. Am I entitled to charge interest and late payment on the outstanding amount? And does Adverse Possession still apply when the garage is leasehold to the neighbour? So if they still refuse to pay and say fail to turn up/respond to any simple monetary court claim - where do I stand then? Can I use adverse possession to get them to move their property out from the garage and hand over the keys and then should they sell their house, they should inform the new owners of the garage and to make contact with me to arrange ground rent payment and I can then give them the keys? I know they are definitely getting my letters as the owner of the house currently has her daughter living in the property, has at least got another daughter living at the residential address I have for her, sent to her work address and had her solicitors pass on letters to her and confirmed they had passed them on. Her solicitor said they didn't think it was something they would get involved in as it should be something easily settled between us, but as she refuses to respond I would like to know what my options are for my next steps! Thanks in advance. WW

Thanks Up2. Will see what they do this week and will speak to my manager about it. WW

Thanks Guys - Bankfodder - the mechanism is this: I am doing my contract for an IT company - lets call them A. A source out their staff through a company - lets call them B. B got me through an agency - lets call them C. C uses a company to manage all their contractors via an online tool where you do your timesheets etc lets call them D. I use the umbrella company to sort out my tax etc - lets call them E. I do my paper timesheet at A - which then gets given to the manager at B - (C not really involved so much at this point - it goes straight to D). I do an online timesheet through D which gets approved by the manager at B. Once approved D then invoices A for my time and arranges the payment. Meanwhile I also do a timesheet using E who then invoice D for the money to come to me - so they can then sort out my PAYE and NI etc. Now the way D and E work together to secure the payment for the contractors who use E is that E will send D all the invoices from each contractor. D then gather all the funds they have been sent by the various A companies and then send it as a lump sum with remittance advice as to who it should be for so that E then process and send out the various payments to all the contractors. D have said that the deduction in their recent run to E was to correct something like an overpayment - pretty large overpayment if it has pretty much debited out all of the money they had sent across. I am of the belief that E has a separate bank account to handle payments from D - rather than it being their sole company bank account. So it's doubtful they are going into administration because of this. I will be talking to my manager (who although he works at A - is also the managing director at B handily!) and finding out what pressure he can put on things for me. If all else fails then it will be a county court matter. I am awaiting a payment this coming week for my third week of my contract - but I have switched umbrella companies so that this last's weeks timesheet will go through them instead. Lets hope I finally see some money next week. Thanks for your advice. Any other views also still welcome.

I own a coach house style property which has two garages underneath - one is mine and the other is used by the house next door. As it is part of my property it is leased out to next door and they have to pay me ground rent of £25 a year and a portion of my buildings insurance - in case they set the garage on fire or anything that could damage my house. It is all laid out in the deeds of my house and next door. I bought the house when it was built in 2001 and the neighbours who initially lived there paid me their ground rent etc when they moved out in 2003 and said the new owners would be in touch to sort out the arrangements regarding the ground rent. I then rented out my house for a while and didn't hear anything - but was hundreds of miles away from my house so couldn't see who was now living next door. It turned out it was bought and then rented out. Two years later the owner contacted me and paid me the amount for the last two years - but stated I had to put her name on my insurance documents - not really possible at the time as my house was being rented out and I had Landlords Insurance etc and once I moved back into my house - trying to get an insurance company to do that when the owner of next door didn't live in the property - was a no go. Plus my solicitor had never advised me to have their name on the insurance too. Some years have passed since they paid me (6 to be exact) and they have continued to rent out the property (however the previous tenant and current tenant are the daughters of the owner so probably not actually paying rent). I wrote to the owner using her business address back in January about the outstanding balance of the ground rent - I did not backdate or charge for insurance as her name hadn't been on the documents. I got no reply. I put a copy through the letterbox next door and sent a copy to her solicitor who had contacted me 6 years ago to arrange payment of the initial 2 years. I still have not had a response. I know she is still the owner of the property and perhaps is hoping I will give up. Am I within my rights to withdraw access to the garage due to lack of payment? I would of course release it back to the owner should they pay, or when they sell the property offer the same arrangement to the new owner. Surely as the owner of the property she uses to rent out - having the garage is a huge selling point for a tenant - so for the sake of £175 for the last 6 years of ground rent (please note I am also not charging interest) - surely that is better than no garage at all for the use of her tenants? Any advice is much appreciated. Many thanks.

I recently started a new 6 month contract where I am employed by an agency who then send my pay to the umbrella company I use as a contractor. I've been there for a month now and initially I realised they had set me up as paying me monthly rather than weekly - which I am used to - so I requested it be weekly which they duly changed. So I have been waiting to get my pay through and last week I was still waiting - checking my umbrella company's pay tracker online to see when I was going to be paid. I contacted the umbrella company to ask what was going on - they said they hadn't been paid by the agency. So I contacted the agency who told me my pay from the first two weeks of my contract had been paid to the umbrella company on the Monday - and should have cleared on the Wednesday (which was the day before I had contacted them.) So I contacted the umbrella company again with the payment date info - one customer services person even forwarded me my own email asking me whether I could tell them where the money was! Eventually I made a complaint and they called me - stating that they had received the money but that the agency sends the pay for all their contractors as a lump sum with a remittance note to state who should be paid and how much etc. However they had also had a huge deduction in the same payment which wiped out their account - leaving only around £1000 - not enough to pay anyone. I contacted the agency again and they said that while the deduction was being looked into, that as far as they were concerned they had paid me (and everyone else on the remittance) and that it was up to the umbrella company to sort things out. I am hopeful that they will sort this out between them - but in the meantime where do I stand with regards to obtaining the money which I am legally entitled to having worked for it? They even said they couldn't notify all the people concerned as there were too many to contact - meaning anyone else wondering where their money was would have to get in touch with them - to then probably be given inaccurate information like I was to begin with, before they find out what is really going on. Surely the umbrella company has a responsibility to notify their clients of any problem with making their payments? Any advice is welcome. Many thanks