"Under the Code, from 1 July 2007, where the suppliers are at fault in not billing a domestic
customer, they will not send a bill which includes unbilled energy consumed more than 1 year
previous to the bill being issued."
Can I clarify this applies in the situation where my energy supplier stopping billing for usage in error and only noticed after > 2 years? i.e. it was their fault for not billing but I didn't inform them of this and it was an audit by the energy company which identified the problem.