Hello, Any advice gratefully received please: I was made bankrupt in Oct 2012. I only included debt that belonged to me in order to avoid the wife becoming embroiled in the bankruptcy and to keep her credit clean. Unfortunately I received some duff advice and a loan in joint names with Abbey that wasn't included in the bankruptcy now has a default registered against it. This loan wasn't included in the bankruptcy but (and I've now checked the c/a small print to confirm this) because I was declared insolvent the T&Cs of the original c/c weren't adhered to and Santander automatically defaulted the account. We attempted on three occasions to have the d/d set up to pay the account and I have spoken to people in Santander collections a few times and argued that we are more than happy to continue servicing the loan. Unfortunately it is out of 'normal processing' and is a 'dead debt'. I was discharged from bankruptcy in Oct 2011 and have still yet to be contacted by anyone at Santander or any debt recovery agencies in an attempt to recover the loan balance. It is all quiet on the Western Front!! I have 2 choices to make, do I: 1) Go through the process of getting default removed as they have never once sent me or the missus a notice of default and therefore was registered incorrectly. 2) Keep my head down for a number of years and hope the debt goes away. If I choose option 1, will this also clear the debt balance or will we have to start a new agreement or continue the old one? If I choose option 2, will the debt ever just disappear? I assume 6yrs from default notice date it will drop off the credit file but surely the debt won't just disappear will it? Basically do I stick my head above the parapet to fight this or stick my head further in the sand in the hope it just goes away. Thanks in advance for your help, Ben