thanks, I appreciate the response and reassurane , I'll keerp the post updated and ignore it for now.. Hopefully, it won't escalate.

Ok thanks, I feel completely sick now, it would appear that it is 12 years after looking into it. What can they do now that they've made contact again?

Thanks for the reply. The loan was taken out sometime in 2003 / 2004 I beleive.

Is a secured loan classed as a mortgage? This loan wasn't the main mortgage just a loan secured against the equity in the property. I think the mortgage company sold the house for as little as they needed to too without looking for the market value which would have coveerd Paragon's debt (which incidentally was £12,000 not £30k) Thanks J

@dadofholly - It was a loan secured against the house

Hi all I hope someone can help. I had my house repossessed in March 2006 and had a personal loan secured against the property. Once the house was reposssesed and sold (which upset me greatly, I was in hospital at the time) I thought, well at least I don't owe anything now even though I have no house. Anyhow, one month after, on April 11th 2006 I received a letter stating "I refer to your request for a redemption statement" and subsequently recieved a demand for over £30,000 pounds. I can vaguely recall Paragon calling me asking for money and I guess I must have requested a redemption statement as I was under the impression that everything was settled. My concern is that, they have now (January 2012) sent a letter asking stating "upon receipt of this letter it is essential that you contact us". No mention of money, or court or anything. I had presumed that this was over with as the debt was first defaulted in October 2005 and the notification to vacate my house was given in 2005. By speaking to them in April 2006 have I acknowledged the debt? Where do I stand, should I write a Statute Barred letter stating that I DO NOT ACKNOWLEDGE THIS DEBT or some other course of action. I'm worried sick as to what I shoudl do now. Thanks In advance of your help. J

Hi Brigadier the file says that the default date was 12 of October 2005 and Intrim Justitia say that the last payment was in 5th January 2005. In their letter they say that they the matter is now closed. Are they duty bound to instruct the CRA to remove the default notice and do I need to supply the CRA with the letter from them? Thanks Jonathan

Hi all First time posting here. Thanks for the advice. I recently found that I had a default on my file from Instrum Justitia for a credit card account from 2005. Using a letter found on here, I have managed to persuade them from pursuing this by using the " I would point out that under the limitation act 1980 Section 5 “an action founded on simple contract shall not be brought after the expiration of six years from the date on which the cause of action accrued.” They have replied today and will not be following it up or contacting me again. Great news! However, I would now like this removed from my credit file, is this possible and how do i go about it? The file was with CallCredit. Thanks J