Hi for the past year I have been putting money into a basic account of mine, no overdraft facility allowed. Money was put aside for a holiday and friends weddings this year. I didn't know the exact amount in there but I knew it was a fair amount. I made a few card transactions online, buying wedding presents etc, Few days later checked my online account to see my available balance. Noted it was £410, I therefore decided to pay off the rest of my holiday for £350. Few days later go online again and to my shock my account is £275 overdrawn!!! I have a basic bank account, so no overdraft allowed. How can I go overdrawn when my available balance was £410!? From what it seems transactions made online were clearly not deducted from my available balance (this has never happened before), which obviously led me to believe I had money to spend!! I know people will say that I should have kept better track of my money... But my available balance has always reflected my pending transactions so I really am confused!!! I'm not in a position to pay this back in full... What on earth can I do?? I've never experienced anything like this before Anyone else had similar???

have no PPI but no I haven't tried the penalty charges.. but I am pretty good and make sure I pay each month even if I am scrapping the pennies together, hence the PDL

what is an AP marker ?? outstanding I currently have QQ- £1125 (with interest) Wonga - £580 (with interest) Credit Card 1 - £3400 CC 2 - £1500 CC 3 - £1000 CC 4 - £600 overdraft from a student account I know longer use (just pay the interest each month) - £700 didn't realise how scary it is until I've just wrote it all down !! it's got to the point where I am able to pay back each month and I don't default but I'm making no dent in any of my credit cards. one lump monthly payment would be so much easier and would give me a finish date.. but obviously I can't get a personal loan to consolidate

No I wasn't lookin to pay a DMP company, I was exploring the avenue of contacting step Change or payplan... My debts haven't defaulted yet so just wondered how badly my credit rating would e affected if step change took them over Thanks

Hi I just wondered how badly a DMP would affect your credit rating?? Would all creditors be flagged as "defaulted" on credit file if take over by a DMP?? Thanks

Hi I appreciate there are loads of threads regarding QQ pre default payment plan, but couldn't quite find the exact answer I was looking for. QQ have said I am eligible for a pre default pay,met plan but to contact them 5 days before my due date. There service and offer can't be faulted, however I just wondered whether this type of payment plan affects your credit rating? And appears on your credit file as defaulting payments or late payments?? Also, how badly would a DMP affect your credit rating?? Thanks for any advice

i had an accident THREE AND A HALF YEARS AGO, on a petrol forecourt, (i was at fault) so you can imagine it was a minor accident and certainly was not serious anough to "violently throw the claimant around the car" (i had to laugh when i read this). but knowing how the personal injury claim works i wasnt too bothered as i was fully insured and presumed he would claim from my insurers and get a nice payout anyway, even tho i did provide a conflicting statement to the solicitors acting on my insurers behalf. i met with my insurers solicitors in the beginning of 2008, (accident being 28th November 2007). I have had no further correspondance since this meeting with solicitors at the beginning of 2008. I then went travelling and subsequently forgot all about the matter, presuming it had been settled with my insurers. so.... you can imagine my suprise when this morning (3 and a half years after original accident) i get court papers through my post box, with the claimant suing for £6000 personal injury!!! i immediately rang my insurers of that time and asked what wwas going on, to which they replied the solicitors acting on my insurers behalf at the time of the accident had paid out £1300 for damage to his vehicle (seems a bit extreme for a small dent to his drivers door) but the solicitors had REFUSED to pay out any money for personal injury...... if this now why the claimant has decided to take it to court because insurers refused to pay out?? and am i still covered by this insurance even tho i have been with a different company for 2 years?? i wont have to pay anything out of my pocket will i? even though i am listed as one of the defendants on the court paperwork?? I have forwarded copies of the court papers to my insurers today already. now this is where i am really really angry.... because I KNOW he is pulling a fast one.. and i know this due to the medical report that was attached to the court papers..... The medical report states :my accident occured 28th November 2007. On the 12th December 2007 (two weeks after the accident) the claimant had a medical with a doctor at the local accident centre and requested a medical report in relation to a road traffic accident he was involved in, in April 2007. He failed to mention any accident that occured on November 28th and insisted his discomfort and symptoms were as a result of an accident he was involved in in April 2007. However, in June 2008 (SIX months after my accident with him), he went back to the accident centre and happened to get the same doctor. he requested a medical report this time to support his personal injury claims in relation to his accident with me. however at this medical he stated that by the time his accident with me occured on November 28th 2007, he had fully recovered from his road traffic accident in April 2007....... now is it just me or does none of this make sense????? if he had recovered fully from his RTA in April 2007 by time of my accident with him why did he seek a medical in December 2007 regarding his April 2007 accident?!?!?!?! i know why he did..... because he is seeking money in any way shape or form, not just from me but from his previous accident in april 2007. he also happened to change his name after the accident but before going for the medical in June 2008.... meaning his claim for the april 2007 and november 2007 accidents would be in different names! something does not sit right and i will be SO angry if i have ti pay him a penny!!!! and why did he only issue a claim to the courts in 2010?!?!?!? any help, advice, thoughts on this matter would be much appreciated Laura

hi zena thanks for your reply. it is so frustrating isnt it! im glad you got all yours sorted. its not as if its something you can just brush under the carpet, a CCJ can effect you massively. and as im still young and havent even started to apply for credit in terms of a mortgage yet a CCJ would not look good on my record!! so you have had no dealings with this matter since and ur insurers sorted it all out? to be fair my insurers were great when i called this morning. they said they hadnt heard anything for 2 years since they refused to pay out for personal injury claims so closed the case last year. but to do nothing but pass documents on and they will deal with it. i have all contact details for solicitors so will be sending them an email next week just to check the ball is rolling! Laura

hi i had an accident THREE AND A HALF YEARS AGO, on a petrol forecourt, (i was at fault) so you can imagine it was a minor accident and certainly was not serious anough to "violently throw the claimant around the car" (i had to laugh when i read this). but knowing how the personal injury claim works i wasnt too bothered as i was fully insured and presumed he would claim from my insurers and get a nice payout anyway, even tho i did provide a conflicting statement to the solicitors acting on my insurers behalf. i met with my insurers solicitors in the beginning of 2008, (accident being 28th November 2007). I have had no further correspondance since this meeting with solicitors at the beginning of 2008. I then went travelling and subsequently forgot all about the matter, presuming it had been settled with my insurers. so.... you can imagine my suprise when this morning (3 and a half years after original accident) i get court papers through my post box, with the claimant suing for £6000 personal injury!!! i immediately rang my insurers of that time and asked what wwas going on, to which they replied the solicitors acting on my insurers behalf at the time of the accident had paid out £1300 for damage to his vehicle (seems a bit extreme for a small dent to his drivers door) but the solicitors had REFUSED to pay out any money for personal injury...... if this now why the claimant has decided to take it to court because insurers refused to pay out?? and am i still covered by these insurance even tho i have been with a different company for 2 years?? i wont have to pay anything out of my pocket will i? even though i am listed as one of the defendants on the court paperwork?? I have forwarded copies of the court papers to my insurers today already. now this is where i am really really angry.... because I KNOW he is pulling a fast one.. and i know this due to the medical report that was attached to the court papers..... The medical report states :my accident occured 28th November 2007. On the 12th December 2007 (two weeks after the accident) the claimant had a medical with a doctor at the local accident centre and requested a medical report in relation to a road traffic accident he was involved in, in April 2007. He failed to mention any accident that occured on November 28th and insisted his discomfort and symptoms were as a result of an accident he was involved in in April 2007. However, in June 2008 (SIX months after my accident with him), he went back to the accident centre and happened to get the same doctor. he requested a medical report this time to support his personal injury claims in relation to his accident with me. however at this medical he stated that by the time his accident with me occured on November 28th 2007, he had fully recovered from his road traffic accident in April 2007....... now is it just me or does none of this make sense????? if he had recovered fully from his RTA in April 2007 by time of my accident with him why did he seek a medical in December 2007 regarding his April 2007 accident?!?!?!?! i know why he did..... because he is seeking money in any way shape or form, not just from me but from his previous accident in april 2007. he also happened to change his name after the accident but before going for the medical in June 2008.... meaning his claim for the april 2007 and november 2007 accidents would be in different names! something does not sit right and i will be SO angry if i have ti pay him a penny!!!! and why did he only issue a claim to the courts in 2010?!?!?!? any help, advice, thoughts on this matter would be much appreciated Laura

hi i hope people are still reading this thread. sweet, what was the final outcome once you sent court docs to your insurers?? i had an accident THREE AND A HALF YEARS AGO, on a petrol forecourt, (i was at fault) so you can imagine it was a minor accident and certainly was not serious anough to "violently throw the claimant around the car" (i had to laugh when i read this). but knowing how the personal injury claim works i wasnt too bothered as i was fully insured and presumed he would claim from my insurers and get a nice payout anyway, even tho i did provide a conflicting statement to the solicitors acting on my insurers behalf. i met with my insurers solicitors in the beginning of 2008, (accident being 28th November 2007). I have had no further correspondance since this meeting with solicitors at the beginning of 2008. I then went travelling and subsequently forgot all about the matter, presuming it had been settled with my insurers. so.... you can imagine my suprise when this morning (3 and a half years after original accident) i get court papers through my post box, with the claimant suing for £6000 personal injury!!! i immediately rang my insurers of that time and asked what wwas going on, to which they replied the solicitors acting on my insurers behalf at the time of the accident had paid out £1300 for damage to his vehicle (seems a bit extreme for a small dent to his drivers door) but the solicitors had REFUSED to pay out any money for personal injury...... if this now why the claimant has decided to take it to court because insurers refused to pay out?? and am i still covered by this insurance even tho i have been with a different company for 2 years?? i wont have to pay anything out of my pocket will i? even though i am listed as one of the defendants on the court paperwork?? I have forwarded copies of the court papers to my insurers today already. now this is where i am really really angry.... because I KNOW he is pulling a fast one.. and i know this due to the medical report that was attached to the court papers..... The medical report states :my accident occured 28th November 2007. On the 12th December 2007 (two weeks after the accident) the claimant had a medical with a doctor at the local accident centre and requested a medical report in relation to a road traffic accident he was involved in, in April 2007. He failed to mention any accident that occured on November 28th and insisted his discomfort and symptoms were as a result of an accident he was involved in in April 2007. However, in June 2008 (SIX months after my accident with him), he went back to the accident centre and happened to get the same doctor. he requested a medical report this time to support his personal injury claims in relation to his accident with me. however at this medical he stated that by the time his accident with me occured on November 28th 2007, he had fully recovered from his road traffic accident in April 2007....... now is it just me or does none of this make sense????? if he had recovered fully from his RTA in April 2007 by time of my accident with him why did he seek a medical in December 2007 regarding his April 2007 accident?!?!?!?! i know why he did..... because he is seeking money in any way shape or form, not just from me but from his previous accident in april 2007. he also happened to change his name after the accident but before going for the medical in June 2008.... meaning his claim for the april 2007 and november 2007 accidents would be in different names! something does not sit right and i will be SO angry if i have ti pay him a penny!!!! and why did he only issue a claim to the courts in 2010?!?!?!? any help, advice, thoughts on this matter would be much appreciated Laura