oliva14
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The reason for being asked to vacate is simply that the property (portfolio) is to be sold by the current owner who inherited x amount of properties from her father who is not dead but retired. As far as we are aware the FIL has never had a tenancy agreement or rent book. Further to that, he has taken care of most modernisation and maintenance at the property during the years including landscaping gardens, building a small driveway, fencing, etc. I think the exception is the exterior painting which was done every five years or so.
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Hi, On behalf of my father-in-law, can anyone advise on what rights would apply to a tenant of more than 40 years who is now being asked to vacate by January or purchase the property at the current market value? The later option is not possible due to age verses mortgage possibilities. Are there any mandatory discounts applicable? Should he be looking for a buy out to fund relocation? Any assistance would be most appreciated. Regards, Chris
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