I received a DN from them:p and I do know it is not worth the paper it is printed on:(. A DN must come from the OC and have their address on. I am reasonable familiar about the consequences of an invalid DN and that the company cannot reissue it. In this case, seeing that it wasn't issued by Barclaycard themselves but their cronies, can they (Barclaycard) issue another valid DN? Thanks!

The weirdest thing about getting credit is that you have to have credit to get it! If you never had credit in the past then there is no information for the CRA to rate you and they will give you a very low score. What you need is one or two credit cards, use the credit in the month to buy your groceries, etc. and pay them in full. After about 6 months or so you will have a good score. You will probably get a card from Capital One or Vanquis with no credit history. the bottom line is that you need some credit to have any credit rating at all! Hope it helps.

Should one decide to actually take a bank or credit card company to court:cool: for invalid default notices, failure to comply to SAR requests, etc., which court will oversee the procedure? Is it in the town/city where the bank/company are registered or in the town/city where you live? Thanks

I recently accessed my Call credit report just to realise that 2 Payday companies registered Defaults:p. I haven't receive any default notices from them. Do they have to follow the same procedure as banks and credit card companies by actually sending you a letter in writing, etc.? Thanks!

Thanks cerberusalert I thought that, I read through the law and could not find that it must be signed. I think he is delaying it because more than 30 days passed before he send his letter. They defaulted me without a default letter (wasn't behind on payments either), the reason for the default was we established a reduced payment, no reason for default at all!! I think he hope I go away!! That change!!

I made a SAR to Captal One. One month later and 2 weeks after cashing the cheque I received a letter that they are unable to provide any information because they haven't receive a signed request, which are required under the Data protection Act and therefore the 40 days haven't started yet. I a signature required or is this a delaying tactic? Thanks!