attached are photos I took at the time of collection. I did first move the car and start driving off. Then I realised i should take photos. So I returned and took these photos - with my black car in situ and with it not in situ. It wasnt until I kicked the leaves that I could see there were yellow lines. I will see if I can now download the council pics 20-11-2020 car pcn pics.pdf

i have had a quick look at their site. There is a difference between my photos and theirs

Hi. Thanks for commenting 10th, 17th and 18th Nov Will sort photo upload now

I googled the full postcode TW10 7AJ Seems to apply to the whole road Yes - Richmond

Thanks HB It was Meadow Close, TW10

Just wondering if anyone has successfully argued against a PCN when there was no sign indicating parking restrictions and leaves were covering lines? I parked car for 2 weeks in a free parking zone. It was a residential street with free parking down one side. I parked car in the last spot at the end of the road in a dead-end. There were 2 areas allocated for residential parking - clearly marked with black/white signs. The car was parked in front of a lamp post and no sign was attached to that. There were no other signs in the road - nothing to indicate restrictions or free parking. The council website states the street is a free parking zone. Yet when I collected the car - there were 3 tickets on the windscreen - £110/each (of £55 if pay early). Turns out that there were double yellow lines exactly where I had parked the car - but they were completely covered in a thick pile of leaves. Only visible by kicking them. And even then they were also faint. There were no other lines on that side of the road. It was a dead-end. There is no way a normal driver would have expected there would be lines in that spot - the one spot in an otherwise free parking street. I took loads of photos. And I intend to write this weekend to try get them cancelled. Has anyone else been in a similar situation and succeeded in cancellations?

It was a huge result for friend He was struggling financially and had no idea he would be eligible, let alone be eligible for late wife's pension too. He ended up in receipt of almost 30k in back-pay lump sum pension. And now can make payments that he couldn't before. In these tough times this was/ is amazing...

Ok. Thanks dx

They don't seem to be letting this go I received a letter from Intrum again in August. I ignored as they had never sent me the DN. However, I just checked my credit file - and it shows a "search" by Intrum (debt collection) in September. They know they haven't complied. I filled in the forms I should in Feb. So why are they doing credit searches? Should I reply - reminding them they never sent a DN and to go away until they do?

Just a brief happy update on this Dwp gave 2 lump sum payments: late wife's and his own. Dwp gave friend the opportunity to split them into different tax years to reduce any tax payable. So we organized for late wife's to go in last tax year and friend's to go into current tax year. This reduced tax liability. Dwp also now give friend weekly pension (paid monthly) from 2 sources - his and his late wife's pension. Friend received the lump sums recently. He is delighted. This took a long time - but we got there. (my own life may be a mess but at least something I've tried has gone right!) Thanks to those who assisted.

I have managed to find legal assistance / will be going through everything with them / on a pay if we win basis... I just need to be as best informed as possible in advance / make sure I'm clear about my facts and position These people are so crooked!

Thanks uncleB The lender won't disclose any financial info to me. I asked via sar and they have spent a year failing to tell me anything. The interest these people charged is huge. They have faffed around deliberately not selling and the interest has just racked up. I don't know the figure now as they won't tell me. Certainly most people would jump off a bridge at the level. I hear what you say though. And yes I have an idea on challenges and a financial solution. I have been reading a lot. As an example Shelter legal site says the lender "must take proper care of the property, for example by dealing with essential or emergency repairs, such as a leaking pipe. It may also undertake basic maintenance". This does not imply major works is ok? I haven't found any site that says a lender can gut the property.... Shelter also says "When the lender sells the property, it has an equitable duty to take reasonable care to obtain the best price reasonably obtainable.". And "Where there is already a shortfall, the lender should not delay the sale if this would result in an increase in the mortgage debt and a worse financial position for the borrower". I don't want to give up

Thanks uncleB. I have quite a few valid challenges which would prevent bankruptcy / return to original ownership. Yes I am trying to sort legal help. It's hard with limited financial resources. Hence why I'm trying to create own defence. I'm not sure I understand how they are legally allowed to completely gut a building whilst - I thought - under a legal obligation to sell? They have refused to sell whilst also accruing interest and applying costs over a very long time. It's as if they deliberately racked up interest and costs to create a shortfall and grab the property via bankruptcy. The property was in good condition. Although squatters did get in. Is it a viable legal opportunity for them - without bankruptcy - to retain the property and rent it whilst simultaneously still charging the mortgagor interest?

Just wondered if anyone has any input on whether a mortgagee-in-possession is allowed to stop advertising the property asset for sale and instead send builders in to rip everything out? I thought they had an obligation to market and sell? And could only do repairs/ maintenance? I didn't think they could completely renovate? Any thoughts?

Update - it seems a judge has allowed B petition to be served at incorrect address and by email and there's a B hearing scheduled for end year I guess I now need to get the SD set aside? Think this will suspend the B petition?? And stall any B hearing? I understand from previous advice/ links that I need to have good reasons to get the SD set aside. Could that be questioning the debt? Stating there's a valuable asset which they valued way higher than debt? Mentioning their refusal to sell the asset? Mentioning they have refused to disclose any personal data on me via a SAR and specifically no list of costs accrued, no financial statement, no list of interest amounts applied etc Mentioning that they are no longer marketing property. I know purchase lawyers were instructed as the fh lawyers disclosed requested info in the summer. But the property hasn't sold yet. Instead builders appear to be renovating. An estate agent let slip to a colleague that the "owner" has decided not to sell and is going to rent instead.... Mentioning that I served a SAR in Feb with a contactable address and they had my # and email - so why did they continue to try serve SD at an address they knew wasn't correct Etc etc Will any of these points work to get a set-aside? I understand that if the judge does set-aside he/she could then ask for both sides to attend a hearing. The crux is - would there be a shortfall and need for B if they had sold to the buyer who has been trying for 18 months Yes the house would get sold cheap but I would not have the blight against my name for the next 6-7 years... Am a bit panicked about what to do and timing

thanks HB Yes it IS complicated!! And I'm just not sure what step to make first. Firstly - can a mortgagee in possession stop trying to sell a property and simply refurb/ rent it instead? I thought they had a legal obligation to sell? And I thought they shouldn't let interest accrue if it puts mortgagor in a worse position - ie large shortfall/potential bankruptcy. I've been reading a lot. But can't find clarity. So any input would be appreciated

Yes. It is. Sorry I thought it might be best to start a new thread

After a repossession start 2019 the lender marketed the property and received offers within weeks - which were relayed to the mortgagor. All were low offers compared to lender's original valuation. 2 of the offers were unable to proceed due to other legal issues. One was able to proceed - but lender failed to accept. One year later lender organized sealed bids situation with agents to try gather interest. The same buyer as one year earlier placed the highest bid - the same level as before. However I now understand the lender is renovating the property with a view to rent it. And now pursuing mortgagor for bankruptcy. What can mortgagor do? Lender has wasted 18months adding interest and extra costs. And created a huge shortfall. Meanwhile, lender has refused to disclose costs or interest accrued since repossession

Thanks uncleB One other question: Can a mortgagee in possession refuse to sell? And instead rent? Or do they have legal obligation to sell? The property has been taken off-line and hasn't been marketed for last 2 months.

I have been trying to get detailed information from lender about my account - interest, costs added, offers received on the property etc. They have refused to disclose. I tried SAR and they still refused. Can I serve some kind of legal injunction on them to force them to disclose? Also could I do the same to the agents? Or would that be impossible because I am (now) not their client and they would not be able to disclose (gdpr rules) - even though I have a financial interest in the property?

Loan taken out 4 years ago.. Lender trying to pursue for B So doesnt make sense that there is no record on the credit file. Unless Lender is trying to pretend there is no secured asset against loan??

Does anyone have any idea why there is no record of the lender or any default on my credit file records? I just checked and there is no record at all of my loans, Could the lender have removed them?

So - just to be clear: The borrower not avoided lender; rather lender avoided trying to serve the borrower correctly Normally, I thought a claimant would have to prove an address is correct and papers served. If not, would it still be possible for a Judge to make borrower bankrupt?

thanks uncleB In this instance - neither lender nor process server has attempted email, text or phone to ask where the debtor is. Lender knew they made debtor homelesss. Debtor has no fixed address - therefore has not changed any addresses with any company. Mail is just on divert to a mailbox. And debtor has told lender this. The debtor served SAR and the lender has not disclosed they are attempting legal process for bankruptcy - as recent as 2 weeks ago Debtor doesnt have social media accounts so notification can't be done that way by lender or process server It is not a question of the debtor trying to avoid service. It is rather a question of lender not wanting debtor to know they want to make them bankrupt

Is it possible for a lender to ask a judge to make someone bankrupt on the basis they have not been able to serve petition?? Alleging they have tried everything to find borrower? Although in reality never admitting in email correspondence that they were already or intended to follow a legal path. Can they attend a hearing alone and ask the judge for Bankruptcy? Or must the lender always prove they have done everything possible to locate the borrower or bring it to their attention they wish to serve a B petition - for a judge to allow bankruptcy to proceed?