yes he does, he requested it upon hearing about the disciplinary. Despite working there for years he had not been given a copy.

sorry, my post was unclear. He stayed until 5 and they know this, they deamanded he then stayed another hour after 5 and he refused as he had already told them he had plans he still works there

A friend was contracted to work until 3pm on xmas eve. Out of goodwill to the business (retail) he agreed to put in two hours overtime after his shift ended and the store had closed to prepare some stock. He made it clear to his line manager that he would need to leave no later than 5 as he had family plans. He left at 5 as agreed as has now been given notice of a disciplinary hearing (he was originally given just 14 hours notice - but date now changed); on the grounds of 'failing to comply with reasonable instruction' and 'leaving shift early'. Any ideas? I really don't trust his employers, they have shown in the past they have disregard to the law. What would you suggest.

thanks for your reply the rent is being paid but not in full. I understand a 1/5 share (£340) is not being paid due to the agents having contractual problems with a tenant who decided not to move in after a number of issues with the property (put the moving in date back by one month with no notice). The agents then chased the others for his share. Furthermore, the house is in a poor state of repair and the landlord will not rectify the problems. what would happen if no valid address is provided before the end of the tenancy? Would the landlord then be able to claim for arrears?

There is a service address for Scotland - however the act specifically states 'england and wales'

Hello A friend of mine is living with friends who have not been keeping up with rent payments. Having examined the contract I have found the landlord has not provided a service address in England or Wales. I am correct in thinking the rent is not actually owing due to this? Can all tenants stop paying immediately? What would happen if the landlord then provides an address.....can they then claim past rent?

any ideas?

Thanks. Yes I was aware of that. However, what if they never provide the service address before end of tenancy? Two of the tenants parents were not happy with the terms agent wanted to impose on a guarantor. therefore the agent at the last minute asked them to provide two months rent in lieu by way of surety. This would then be returned at end of tenancy. No receipt saying it was a deposit, they list it under the heading 'rent in lieu' when infact it serves to ensure the tenant maintains his obligations under the lease.

I will try and keep this as concise as possible. March 2008: Tenants sign lease for property - deposit of £1900 which is protected as required. August 2008: Agent cannot move tenants in on time - one tenant unhappy with service and leaves Late August 2008:Two tenants asked to get parents to give 'rent in lieu' instead of acting as guarantor. This money is held over to the end of the tenancy. No receipt was issued but bank records prove the money was paid. Does this come within the Housing Act definition of 'deposit'? February 2009 - after months of telling the remaining tenants that the individual who was originally moving in had been paying his share of rent, agent informs tenants this is not the case and now seek back arrears of over £1,000. I have inspected the lease and they have only provided a s.48(1) service address which is located outside of England/Wales. Does s.48(2) Landlord and Tenant Act apply to mean that no rent is due from tenants? March 2009 -wish to commence legal action. Do i file form N208 and how do i go about serving documents outside the jurisdiction (scotland)? there are also various other problems i am getting investigated - lack of HMO licence, constantly turning up and letting themselves into property without notice. Can i get a court order to restrain them from doing this? Thank You