citizenB, I have a copy of the letter the bank claim to have sent to me that is dated the 8th December 2009. This says that if I remain in default for a further 28 days they will register a default against me. The default is registered on my credit file as the 11th December 2009. Does this mean the bank backdated the default or did they fail to give me the 28 days? My issue is I didn't receive the default notice and the bank 'lost' the account for nearly 2 years. My solicitor was even looking for it and eventually gave up. The banks advise was to wait until it turns up. This is what I did and when it did finally show up, I immediately paid it off. Only after did I find out there was a default registered against me now Im trying to have it removed. I have no chance obtaining any future credit as this default has pushed my credit rating down to very low. There is little chance I will be able to obtain a mortgage which is what I need to do soon before December 2015 with my credit rating.

citizenB, thanks for the information. My issue is the bank say they issued me with a formal notification of intention to register a default against me. I didn't receive this letter. The bank have sent me a copy and the date on the letter is the same as the date they registered the default. I suppose one question I have is, can a bank backdate a default to the date they sent the letter?

NotPPIsavy - Thanks for the info. I suspect if there are only guidelines, the fact the bank sent the warning letter on the same day they registered the default is irrelevant. citizenB - It was a loan dx100uk - Tanks for the advice.

Hi all, Does anyone know what length of time a bank is legally required to give you before registering a default against you. Thanks,

No you're wrong there. Amazon is the shop in my analogy. The shopping centre would be the website host in your analogy and that's irrelevant.

Youre getting silly. This is not a comparison. If I was paying the centre and not the shop I would agree with you but that's not the hypothetical situation you are highlighting.

No because I would not have paid the shopping centre for the coat would I.

Insanity: doing the same thing over and over again and expecting different results. Albert Einstein If someone doesn't understand what you are saying, saying it again and again will not change that fact.

What is the difference between me handing my bank card to a cashier to pay for an item at a retailer and giving my bank card details to Amazon who then bill me? I'm not paying a 3rd party, I'm paying Amazon.

This is why I'm asking the question. Take the internet out of the situation. I go to a shop on the high street and buy a product off the shelf. I pay the cashier and leave. I find the item is faulty. Legally the responsible party is the shop as I paid them for the item, not some third party whose shop I have not entered and who I have not paid for the item.

If I bought something from ebay, I would be using that site to buy directly form the seller via bank transfer or paypal. With Amazon, I'm using their site (in the same way as ebay) but Amazon is billing me for the product not the seller. All I want is for them to be a bit more forceful with sellers who break UK law but it appears they just wash their hands with you if things go wrong.

Thats my reason for asking as who is liable seems a bit of a grey area considering who's site I bought the item and who took payment.

This is the conundrum. I bought the item from the Amazon.co.uk website via a "seller" but Amazon took the money for the item. This is why I'm questioning if its legal. As the transaction is with Amazon not the seller, aren't they the party I have the contract with.

Quick question to all the gorgeous people here I have had a previous issue with Amazon and their Sellers and I have now had another. The first issue was a seller refused to refund or replace an item they sold me that went faulty within 5 months. Amazon would do nothing about it and the seller is still selling goods through Amazons website. Over Christmas I ordered an item that arrived faulty. I contacted the seller through the Amazon site and they said post it back and they would refund me. I replied to ask how they would refund the postage and had no reply. I contacted Amazon through their online chat and I had the following reply from Amazon: Amazon seem to be happy to list the items on their website and take payment but when there is a problem they refuse to do anything and tell you its down to the seller. Is this not breaching the Distance Selling Regulations?