Hi! I am a newbie - although I have been lurking for a fortnight. To prove that even lawyers get into trouble sometimes and need help too, I am here to learn as I sort out my own problems. In time, I hope to be able to repay that help by contributing in kind and helping others. Anyway, to the point: I have my own views on the Rankine judgment (which would be most unprofessional for me to post) but I have a specific query about the "section 78 no longer applies after the agreement ends" bit of the judgment (likely to become relevant to me in one of my forthcoming spats). Obiter? Part of a judgment regarded as "turning on its own facts"? Flat wrong? Inconsistent with another precedent I'm not aware of? Any ideas, anyone??? Thanks in advance ... and, please, be gentle with me in spite of my avocation.