Okay so what I am understanding from all this is that I can claim whatever little I can claim from the government and then if the company gets sold or liquefied I can get a percentage of the rest, depending what is available. That's what I wanted to know. Thanks for the help

I will claim via RPS. What does "Balance will be due from divi to unsec" mean? Is there hope to get something more from the company if a successful sale goes through? RPS is very little indeed compared to what is owed.

The remainder of staff got paid their full wages and will continue to get paid for as long as the company remains in administration. If I had left a day later I would have been paid too. This large amount of arbitration and custom rules seem to serve no purpose and make little difference. Paying the wages of 300 people and leaving one behind is hardly a case for putting precedence over other unsecured creditors. I was no less of an employee than anyone else, in fact in terms of payroll t I was in the exact same situation as everyone else. What I need to understand is what these legal terms mean, I have been advised by KPMG to claim via the Redundancy Payments Service which from what I can see could only provide me with a tiny fraction of what is actually owed to me. They are now discussing selling the company as well as other solutions for my ailing employer and I need to know, should they find a solution and funds do become available, will they be legaly required to compensate me for what is owed and the services rendered? Will I still be eligible for compensation after going through Redundancy Payments Service? Something like this has never happened to me before and I am inexperienced.

Question about what unsecured creditor actually means. If the company gets sold or liquefied and funds do become available, aren't they obligated to pay me my wages? - my last day of employment was 15/1/15 - date of administration was 19/1/15 - usual date when salaries paid 23/01/15 - was P45 issued (not sure, I've been told they'll post it at some point, they might have already done that) - is the company paying the salaries due and any stat redundancy ? They paid everything to others today, nothing to me. I was service my notice between mid December and mid January so I don't think I was made redundant. - do you have home insurance with legal cover ? Nope I feel it's extremely unfair because if they have funds to pay all employees, why would they segregate me just because I happen to have my last day at the office a week earlier? Isn't this discrimination of some sort?

Hello, I have been working for a few years at a company and I resigned in December, my last day was on the 15th of January. My company went into administration a week ago and KPMG is the agent handling the company now. The January wages were paid to everyone int he company except me. They said they are only willing to pay those who are still with the company, since my last day was 3 days before the company went into administration they see no reason to pay my wages, which is a sizable amount. I need to point out that I left legally, after serving my 1 month's notice and aside from the obviously discrimination and unfairness of it all, I have no way of fighting this. KPMG told me to seek help directly with the Redundancy Payments Service (even though I wasn't really made redundant) and it looks like I would get a small fraction of what they owe me if I succeeded in the claim. I seek some advice from someone experienced. Is there a way to reason with the administrating company for such an obvious injustice using a legal standing that they will acknowledge? Just telling them that it's unfair won't help, I need a more tangible way of doing it. Thank you in advance Nick

The telephones keep occurring! So i've written this as advised above. I'll send it today! Hopefully they will stop. If there's anything more to add please let me know. Thanks Re: Harassment by telephone Reference number: x Dear Sirs I am writing in relation to the quantity and frequency of telephone calls that I have received from your company, which I deem to be personally harassing. I have verbally requested that these stop, but I am still receiving calls. Your company claims that there is a debt to your client which I DO NOT ACKNOWLEDGE and you have failed to neither produce written evidence nor send the requested letter that describes the debt. I now require for the last time that all further correspondence from your company to be made in writing only as well as all the required documents that back up the claim of a debt. I am of the view that your continued harassment of me by telephone puts you in breach of Section 40 of the Administration of Justice Act 1970, and the Protection from Harassment Act 1997. If you continue to harass me by telephone, you will also be in breach of the Communications Act (2003) s.127 and I will report you to OFCOM, Trading Standards and The Office of Fair Trading, meaning that you will be liable to a substantial fine. Be advised that any further telephone calls from your company will be recorded. Yours faithfully, Nick

yes I tried calling the gas company and they say I don't exist and that my address is not on their system. Go figure, bunch of clowns. That's why I'm pretty sure they'd have hard time proving I owe anything. What kind of letter do I send. The CCA one is really good but I wonder if it's relevant in this case. Does the 12 day rule apply even for such debts?

Question: I read in the fora about the CCA request, but what is CCA? Does it apply to all debts or is maybe "credit agreement" somethign related to direct debit payments? They are allegedly claiming I owe money to a gas/electricity company many months after I had finalized and cleared the last bill. So maybe I can't send the CCA request for that. I am planning to combine the "do not harass me" message with the "what is it I owe?" message. Does the 12 day rule apply for all debts? Please advise

Oh that's utterly fantastic!! I'll do exactly that! Thank you very much!!

Dear group, I need advice about BCW who keep calling. I have not acknowledged their claim and I can prove that I owe nothing. I am also certain I do not exist in the database of the client they pretend I owe money to. They keep calling to ask for me to pay and I gave them my address to send me a letter with what it is I owe and why. I suspect they have no letter to send, because no letter ever arrived. However, they keep calling and calling. In our last conversation I asked for the second time that all communication from now on has to be in writing. Instead they kept asking my address as a "security question" claiming that they have it and that they need to see if it's really me. They said it's their standard procedure to do this over the phone instead and I insisted that I refuse to converse and that I insist to receive everything in writing in order to have records of our conversation. They said conversations are recorded and this should be fine. Please help me, isn't it my right to want to communicate with them in writing? The phonecalls are incessant and I get no peace. How do I proceed with a company that has nothing to send to me but insists calling me? Thank you

I love the kanji for road you have zazen warrior. It's michi (道) isn't it? Is that because you show the way to people? Btw how do you do the BG Data protection act consent? If i call them do I say "I want to do the bG data consent with my flatmate" or "I have done it" or do I need a lawyer?

Ok i'll talk to british gas but as i've mentioned my account has been closed and they are reluctant to talk to me. My flatmate closed the account on the 31st of October and paid all outstanding balance. Therefore I find it odd that they charge me until the 13th of Oct. If my flatmate calls to British gas they can only advice him on his account and are not allowed to tell him about my account. If I call they tell me i'm not their customer any more and can't provide me with details. It's a very bureaucratic situation where they've made a mistake and they create a situation that they can't solve it

Oh when I asked what period does that concern, they said 13/6/2006 - 13/10/2007!?! It boggles the mind...

Well yes I suspect they are talking about the final bill. What happened was, after I left Scotland my flatmate called and terminated my account, paid the final balance (he has the receipt) and changed the account in his name. I think he did things correctly otherwise they wouldn't have closed the account, right? I now live in England and it's been 6 motnhs since then. I never received a bill at my old address about it. I suppose whatever went wrong has become a debt, but I do believe it was paid properly because my flatmate has a receipt of 200 pounds to terminate the bill.

I will send the letter as suggested by saintly_1. Can I also add that I have evidence that all balance has been cleared with british gas when the account was closed or is this one of those situation where the more info you give them they more they'll use it against you?