before i saw this address i had already sent my CCA letter to Red Debt at: PO Box 192, Leeds LS11 1AT have i screwed up?

... therefore any figures they might produce can't be trusted! certainly sounds like even more reasons for some really trustworthy organisation to act as class monitor imo.

who would be prepared to pay the legal fees to prosecute such a case? would the legal profession have any reason to prosecute such a case pro bono? at the very least, i think that almost everyone would assume that the judge would ensure that THE LETTER OF THE LAW was followed. if that's not the job of a judge then what the "hell" are they there for?

i don't know about you but i'm an old cynic and i'm very wary of any facts or figures etc that any official body might produce ... even one's who are supposed to be there to help the public. so i wondered if it was a good idea for each of us to make individual reports to any of them - just in case! would it not be safer if everyone who discovered, say, DCA's not complying with regulations, reported them to someone we can trust, e.g. consumer action group even if they only collected the statistical data, at least we would be able to see the true extent of the problem.

lets say that a company called Low Hell buys a debt without a CCA. they pass the debt to a sub-division of their own company called Red Bet who start to chase you. when you ask for a CCA they simply pass the whole thing back to Low Hell who either pass it to another sub-division of their own company or sell the debt to another DCA. this could equally apply to the original debtor. although, maybe, they might be more worried about image. is there anything to stop this going on forever?

even though you did not know this at the time? forget debt for now. just think about the law in general. if someone was found guilty of a crime. would there not be a good reason to appeal if it could be shown that the defence lawyer was incompetent and had missed a glaring legal precedent, for example?

wouldn't this be the same as saying we found you guilty once so it doesn't matter what evidence you can produce now, you're still guilty?

lets say sum1 owes money to a bank. the bank then "sells" or passes the debt to a DCA. however, the DCA can't produce the CCA. is that really the end of the matter? or can the bank still ask for the money? maybe even pass the debt to another DCA ... what i'm asking is, once a debt becomes unenforceable, is it unenforceable by everyone? could the bank not say that the DCA messed up and that they had the CCA all along?

thanks for the data protection letter jamesrap but the debt is over 6 yrs old so won't any charges be un-reclaimable?

great help by everyone, many, MANY thanks. actually, i have two, well three, debts, all from the same era. one with barclaycard that was only a couple of months away from vanishing into the 6 year pit - until Lowell appeared on the scene. please ignore this debt for this thread. the other two are subject to a CCJ and are what i was asking about. answering a few of the q's: i went to court but i was unrepresented and the proceedings seemed to be almost in a different room. as if i was just watching it all through a one way mirror. it wasn't in the northampton court but northern manchester. the court case was years ago and i have been paying the amounts the court awarded to them ever since. the debt was two tsb credit cards, together totaling about £4,750 i'm sure they must have added various charges, legal fees, solicitors costs, etc but it's all so long ago that i really don't remember. in fact, this happened so long ago that finding any of the paperwork is going to be a mammoth task. although, if i apply to the courts to reduce the payments then i would guess that enough of the information will come to light for me to request a CCA.

and if they don't or can't comply with the request for a signed (and dated?) CCA? what happens then? stop paying the CCJ?

i've have written to the Halifax a number of times asking them to freeze my mortgage interest. each time they reply that they are unable to freeze the interest as i am i arrears. this doesn't make much sense to me but maybe that's because i'm not in the financial business. surely being in arrears is the reason for me wanting to have my mortgage interest frozen. conversely, if i wasn't already in arrears then i wouldn't need the interest freezing as i could afford to pay it. maybe it was the way i asked them, basically, "please can you freeze my interest?" is there a standard letter i should have sent? are there any rules regarding the freezing of mortgage interest? do i have a "next" step? p.s. post virgin ... please be gentle with me