Hi stressed mum. My A&L loan started after April 2007 so don't think I'll have much luck there. Haven't Co-Op committed a criminal offense by not sending the (bogus) CCA in time? Isn't there a process you can follow to get rid of them just on that basis?

thanks Stressedmum, I didn't think they'd give us the money back but at the same time was wondering how baconbuttyman and others had done that very thing (see http://www.consumeractiongroup.co.uk/forum/other-institutions/10900-loan-company-cannot-supply.html). You think 2001 is too recent? I was thinking that as both our cards were once NR and then sold to the Co-Op, then there is a good chance that the CCAs of all cards in this scenario could have been lost in the transfer, unless someone already knows? Secondly there is another good chance the CCA contains improper terms as the credit card was sold as part of NR Together. I'm not having major difficulties keeping up payments on the card as its only a £500 credit limit and not £10k credit like it was. I haven't asked for the CCA yet, it just occurred to me yesterday that their is a strong liklihood that its unenforcable and I'm generally kicking myself I didn't think of it when the limit was £10k !! That £10k went onto an expensive A&L loan. I think now I will persue it even if it just annoys them. Likewise our income is dropping off rapidly and want to just pay the priority stuff, everything is complicated by having to move out of 2 bed we own as not enough space with working from home, baby and pets and rent a 3 bed whilst letting out the 2 bed. We're in a bad situation in that can't claim housing benefits or mortgage protection as will be excluded from both, I tend to tell creditors nothing now regarding my personal situation, all this lot have is my mobile number.

Joining this thread as also have co-op visa originally from NR Together from 2001 and don't think the CCA, if any, can stand. Also wondering if the CCA doesn't stand does that mean they owe us back all the money we've paid onto the card? A few months ago they reduced my limit from £10k to £500 without warning after I cleared most of it off, just before my wife had our first baby, whatever I said to them they wouldn't listen, been waiting for vengeance ever since.

Hi hrhpod, I'm equally bewildered, I've had a credit card with them for about 6 years. Been a very good customer. All of a sudden after paying off what was owed on the balance they reduced the limit down from £10000 to £500 with no notice whats so ever!! Now this really annoys me as when I cleared it I asked the customer service people if there was any reason that they should suddenly reduce my limit, as I said I have a baby on the way and may well need it again. They kept saying that "they saw no reason" why they would reduce the limit as long as I kept using the card by at least one transaction a month. It looks like as soon as they saw the money they grabbed it and they are not admitting in any shape or form that they lied to me over this in any way. I think not lying should be the most basic part of being a so-called 'ethical' organization, never mind all the saving the world rubbish.

One thing I noticed is that they will give a better loan rate if you have AG. I was given a quote where they said they would reduce monthly payments on a loan by £8, but the disadvantage bronze costs £12 per month, so all a bit pointless! However, I'm sure I didn't see this in the literature, do we have a case for mass miss-selling on this one? The reason I got it originally, was because I noticed the Lending department always seemed more helpful when having AG. Now that the fee is so high I've got rid of it.

Thanks everyone. I'll think I'll give up with trying to work that bit out. Pity though, I'm sure there's quite a bit there, but way too complicated to get exact figures on.

These are interest charges from when I did have an overdraft. What I'm saying is when the Direct Debit and card charges took me over my limit and then I got a huge interest charge at the end of the month, I can't work out how to split that up between interest I would have been charged anyway (from having an overdraft) and the interest resulting from the charges taking me over the limit. You probably didn't have this problem as you didn't have an overdraft, so could just take down the whole interest charge? The type of charge that never did take me over my limit were the other "Unauthorized Overdraft" charges at the end of the month.

Thanks Sallysas, So is the interest I can claim back "resulting from the charges" only the contractual interest on the charges themselves that I would add on or also the additional interest they charged me at month end for the charged amount, which is in effect another charge?? In the later case this can only be related to a Direct Debit or Card fee that went over my overdraft limit, and not an Unauthorized Overdraft fee which they only charge at month end and has never taken me over my limit. I looked at the advanced spreadsheet, but don't see which part of that helps with interest calcs as it only does the 8% stuff. Yes, I do have a parachute account if it comes to that, I no longer have an overdraft with NW at all, but do have a loan with them. So it depends on how nasty they want to get...

What I mean is my DD charges always happen either when I don't know the day the DD is due because it is erratic and I get it a day before money is through to cover it or I know the day the DD is going to come out but cannot cancel it time because its too close to the three day period in which they will cancel it as I have been caught out by other random hits on my bank account the day before. The DDs in question are inevitably the small ones for £10-40.

Its too late for all that. I no longer have my overdraft and the DDs in question have now all gone through. So I should incur "no additional charges" in my mind. Isn't that what this is all about anyway! If I tot up the last months total I went over my limit by and compare it the amount of charges I incurred they are about the same! I have never let a situation develop where they can continually charge me.

Hi, I've totted up my charges for the last 6 years. I don't think I need to do a SAR as I've kept all my statements and am only missing the odd month which I don't think will make any difference. My charges for the last 6 years only started in 2003 and Natwest have got progressively worse in my case over the years up until this last month when I decided enough was enough, as they have charged me at least £300 in the last month alone. At one point in the past they would not bounce all my direct debits if I went slightly over and just charge me one referral fee, now they bounce all my direct debits without fail no matter how small. The total amount of charges not including any interest whatsoever, that's either additional interest they charged me, or interest I should charge them, is £1035.85. Most my charges occurred within an overdraft. What I'm confused by is how to break down the additional interest they've charged me. From what I understand I can't claim back the normal interest for an authorized overdraft, nor should I claim back the interest for the charge itself, but what I can claim back is the unauthorized or contractual interest rate charged on my normal overdraft limit due to the charge. But the only figure I have is that nasty inflated amount they've charged me interest at the end of each month, so how do I work out that "slice" from the total??? This all before I add on the contractual compound interest for the charge itself, and of course the additional contractual compound interest on the "over interest" slice they charged me. Can anyone help? Thanks in Advance. Gump

Yes! Was billed in August 2007, so they the one year rule can be argued from what I understand.

Sorry, when I said "quarterly bills" I meant "quarterly statements" as there was no demand for payment. I'll edit my first post.

Speaking to the expert at the Energy Retail Association he says that as the statements were not demands for payments and I made no other payments via direct debit, etc. then the 1 year rule will indeed apply as long as the £2415 bill was received on or after 1st July 2007 when the new rule kicked in. I believe they sent me the bill probably around that time, but haven't got it in front of me to confirm. Will be digging it out shortly...

Sorry, to clarify, if I did receive quarterly estimates as statements, but those estimates always said I was in credit, does that count as being billed?