Who is responsible in the following: Person falls behind in payments to Creditor A... creditor A eventually defaults account and sells account to DCA. DCA changes name on default, but subsequent enquiry reveals DCA cannot produce default notice, but refuse to remove as they are not the original creditor and request should be made to Creditor A. But if DCA have bought the debt, surely they also buy the default given they have changed the creditor name on the entry, and it is they who should remove? Maybe I'm wrong...

No, it's an old Aqua card... she took it out circa April 2013, got into trouble with it after losing her job and sorted a payment agreement. When New Day took Aqua over from SAV/Halifax, they stopped taking the agreed payments under the arrangement and defaulted the account. They then sold it to Idem a few months later. Sister says the credit report showed AP when with Aqua, then showed as defaulted in February this year by NewDay. Default disappeared from April's Noddle report, but reappeared in May under the Idem banner.

Cheers dx100uk... Original default was issued by New Day, not Aqua/Sav Credit/Halifax. Sister says the default disappeared for a month from her Noddle report before reappearing under the Idem name. Credit file only shows default from May this year with no prior history, but sister says original New Day default was dated from February then disappeared in April.

Hi all, Trying to sort something out for my sister who has got into some bother with Idem. She originally had a debt with Aqua and despite sorting out a payment agreement with them after racking up some arrears, Aqua defaulted the debt when they were taken over by New Day Credit. At this point, repayments stopped being taken for several months despite my sister's attempts to sort things out with the new company. New Day subsequently sold on the debt to Idem Servicing who have been chasing my sister via Moorcroft to collect the outstanding amount. My sister is adamant she has received no notice of assignation or any other correspondence from Idem, and has only received correspondence from Moorcroft. She checked her credit report a few months ago to see the default issued by New Day was removed, but that a new default had been registered by Idem. She claims not to have received a default notice from Idem and the dates don't tally between that default and the one issued previously by Progressive. She believes the default placed by Idem is incorrect and has been placed in breach of the CCA regulations as procedures haven't been followed. She sent a CCA request to Moorcroft, asking for a copy of the CCA, as well as the notice of assignment , original default notice and a statement along with a cheque for £1. The cheque has been cashed. Moorcroft wrote back saying they had passed the request to Idem, but yesterday she got a letter saying that she should contact Idem directly for the information. The account has been placed on hold for 30 days to allow her time to request the info from Idem. I don't see why she should contact Idem. Surely if Moorcroft are the ones acting as agents then they should supply the requested documents from the creditor (Idem)? The original CCA request was made in August, and nothing has been forthcoming so in my view the debt is unenforceable now until such times as the requested paperwork is supplied. To be clear, she's not disputing the debt and says she owes the money and is happy to pay back; she is disputing the placement of a default that she says has been unlawfully placed on her credit file. All help and advice is appreciated.

This has been resolved. It took a very helpful young lady instore over 90 minutes, but she got it fixed and didn't give up on the case until it was done... even though she could just have referred me to customer relations herself.

Manan Vora, Vodafone Customer Relations doesn't seem to be too interested in dealing with it. If Lee wants to help, he can look up the email I sent to the Exec team with reference #9267610; it's pretty much a copy of what is above.

Last year, having endured poor signal for some time and then receiving a clearly misleading marketing email in September 2014 that Vodafone subsequently refused to honour, I registered my intention to cancel my Vodafone contract. It was due to expire on January 25. Having subsequently received a call from the retentions team later in September, I agreed to a new contract on provision that I received an early upgrade of my handset and a reduced tariff. And so all was well again with better signal, and an early upgrade. However, on Sunday January 25 2015 at noon, my phone ceased to receive any mobile signal. Believing this to be an issue with my bill (I don't owe anything apart from my current bill, which isn't yet due to be paid) I tried to log into my account online to be told that my mobile number was no longer registered. I can only assume that the initial request I made in September 2014 to cancel my contract has been actioned despite my subsequent agreement to remain with Vodafone and renew my contract. This is not the first time this has happened, and the exact same scenario presented itself on my last upgrade also, and I was without phone service for more than one week. Normal customer service channels have been a joke, and they either don't understand or choose not to understand and are accusing me of cancelling and being in breach of my contract, which in utter muck, and trying to charge me the cost of the handset. I've since made an email complaint to the CEO office, and have a reference number. However, they insist on trying to call me on my wife's phone (which is also with Vodafone and is/was linked to my account) which I can't access as she works away. I've tried calling the direct line number they left me to call back, but I'm not sitting in another 30+ minute queue any longer, as I've tried three times already and I'm not getting anywhere. An email response to the original complaint will just trigger another reference number so little point in doing that. An absolute shambles of a company, and I'm regretting sticking around for another two years. The ombudsman beckons!

Can't remember, wasn't many.. 2, maybe 3. We never received any form, we made all claims online. My wife phoned them once she had been given her contract to let them know, and it was followed up by letter.

Thanks, Any additional advice to offer before I put this into a letter?

The letter... All advice on how to tackle Advantis is welcome; I'm versed with dealing with DCAs when its consumer credit, but not so sure with this one.

Actually, yes I do.. I have a letter from Advantis stating that exactly. I haven't paid them anything yet, while I wait on proof of debt from HMRC. I shall scan the letter and post it later this morning.

Hi, Advantis Credit have been chasing me for a tax credit overpayment that I seemingly received back in 2012. We used to get tax credit, but when my wife started working in April of that year we informed the tax credits office of the change and we were no longer eligible to receive tax credits as collectively we earned too much. The payments stopped soon after, and we never reapplied for the new year in June. I thought no more of it until I started getting these letters from Advantis chasing the overpayment. I've written to HMRC asking for proof of overpayment, as I had informed them of all changes and I haven't heard back. Meantime, Advantis are continuing to chase and are telling me that I need to pay the debt and then claim it back from HMRC if I think it's wrong. With the tax credit system one giant mess, I'm not prepared to do that until I have proof that a debt exists, but HMRC are silent on the whole thing; I've written several letters to HMRC asking for proof of debt but I have heard nothing back from them, and Advantis won't back off unless HMRC instruct them to do so. I can't afford to pay this off in one swoop. Any advice?

No, what I mean is this... FSCS are responsible for handling claims against Welcome Finance for any agreement struck since 2005, which I know; for pre-2005 agreements, claims were to be made directly to Welcome/Cattles for investigation. However, I'm sure I read somewhere that Welcome were no longer going to investigate claims relating to agreements made before a certain time. I'm trying to confirm whether that is correct, and if so, what that time is.

I know that another body is handling PPI reclaims against Welcome Finance for agreements post-2005, but are Welcome still handling pre-2005 claims? I'm sure I read somewhere that Welcome were no longer investigating claims on agreements made prior to a certain year, but I can't remember or find out the year in question. I've just found some information from an old car purchase (1998) and 2 personal loans (1999, 2000) that would suggest I would have a claim against them, but given the dates I suspect I may be onto plums trying to raise a claim now.

Now seemingly the insurance provider has questioned whether the broker who sold the insurance was acting as an agent of the finance company and the claim is being disputed again... ffs!

Thanks!

Its only taken 3 years, but I've now received a letter from FOS recommending my complaint be upheld. Looking back, I had a 3 year finance agreement on a car, with repayments of £312.20 per month between 2003 and 2006, of which roughly £40 was PPI. Without PPI, I would have repaid circa £272 a month. I'm trying to work out roughly what I'll be due back, providing the original lender doesn't challenge the decision. I'd like to know whether this PPI is classed as single premium PPI, or something else? Thanks.

Hi Lee, No need as your compatriot, Paul, is already on the case.. see ref: 11007074 .. you could hurry him up a bit to complete the resolution, however, and I'm still very unhappy with Paul's answer in any case. So much so, I'm considering an official complaint to OTELO and your UK Chief Executive, Guy Laurence about this issue, as a simple reconnection of services is not in my view a satisfactory resolution. Whatever happens, I'll be cancelling my wife's account when its up for renewal in October, and my own, when it too expires in January 2015.. that is, once I've finally been reconnected, and my contract restored. I've been badly let down with Vodafone over this and rest assured these will be the last contracts I have with Vodafone.

Thanks for the info.. The number isn't important; it would just have saved hassle in having to inform various different people of it changing it. Staying with Vodafone isn't important either; to be honest, their signal around where I live/work is pretty crummy anyway. I'm more concerned that if I were to move elsewhere, that Vodafone suddenly 'find' my now defunct 'new' contract and try to charge me £00s as a consequence. I did tell them I was cancelling back in August; however, I had believed (maybe foolishly!) that the new contract would have wiped that request - I'm guessing not. I'm also worried that they try to strike at my credit report, either themselves or through DCA goons, and so I'd have further problems with them later...

Back in August 2012 I had an early upgrade via Vodafone from my old phone to my current S3. I wasn't due an upgrade at the time, and had another 2 months to go before I became eligible for one but due to ongoing issues with my phone and having thrown a hissy and threatening to quit when my contract came to an end in January this year they relented and gave me the S3 on a new tariff. The new tariff was applied and I got my phone. All was will until Friday when I lost all service. Thinking it might just have been a glitch on the network, I waited to see if it would resolve.. it didn't. On Saturday I went to my local Vodafone shop and explained that my phone wasn't working and that I couldn't send or receive texts, make or receive calls or access mobile data. The guy went through some diagnostics, swapping SIMs and trying my SIM in another phone before concluding that the issue was account-related. He pulled up my account and found that the only registered phone at my address was the phone I have for my wife, and that my number was no longer associated with the account. In fact, my number didn't exist and had been cancelled altogether! I got on the phone to Vodafone who told me I'd have reconnection within 24 hours. Well, those came and went, so i phoned again, to be told another 24-48 hours. I'm a bit pig sick of Vodafone now; I've had past problems with them and this is the final straw. I'm now wondering what my rights are as a consumer. I agreed at the time of the upgrade to a 2-year extension on my new tariff with Vodafone back in August, but it seems to me that my original cancellation request hasn't been removed and so has over-ridden the new contract, and I'm now without any contract at all. I also have a 6-month old S3. Would I be within my rights to tell them to shove the reconnection, give me a PAC code and take my business - and the phone - elsewhere without charge? Its my view that its their fault this cancellation has been processed, and as far as their records show, my contract expired as of the approximate date of expiry of my previous contract, and not my new one which appears to have vanished. My latest bill only shows a part-month's usage and charges for my phone also. Cheers for any help and advice.

Thanks, much appreciated. I wasn't sure how it would appear once the drop-off date passed, as it is marked 'satisfied' from June 2011 on my report. I assume then that the full entry will drop off from December, and not just the default part?

Hi, been a long time since I last posted in CAG... I have a coupe of quick question about my credit file I'm hoping someone can answer. I have a default marked on my CR from December 2006, which was settled in May 2011. I understand the default period ends 6 years after the date of registration, in my case, December 2012 but I wondered how it would show on my credit report, as Equifax states: "The information will stay on your Credit Report for 6 years from the date the account was ended." - does this mean the date of default or the date of settlement? I really don't want this hovering on my CR for another 5 years. Second, I have a settled account from June 2011 that was never defaulted, but was operated 4 months in arrears for several months prior to the settlement. I know this has a bad affect on my Credit Score (which is gubbed atm anyway, thanks to the default!) but how do lenders view this as time passes and the arrears age? Do they still take them into consideration, even though they're over 12 months old and the account has settled, or do they lose potency over time until they are a non-issue? Thanks.

College Credit are/were a subsidiary company of Private & Commercial Finance Group (PCFG). The College Credit was re-merged under the parent company, so any enquiries should go to PCFG. http://www.pcfg.co.uk/

Can anyone advise on this please? Thanks.

Hi, I have an issue with T-Mobile I'm trying to sort out and I'd appreciate some advice. First to the background... apologies for the lengthy post and the sizeable images, but I wanted to provide as much info as I can. A few years back I had a contract with T-Mobile with phones for both my wife and I on the contract. I was the sole account holder. During a girls' break abroad in 2006, my wife used her mobile to send texts to myself and our children - unknowingly racking up a hefty bill, as T-Mobile charged connection fees per text. After trying to come to an arrangement to repay with T-Mobile, they eventually defaulted the account and passed it to a DCA and I began to repay them at an agreed rate per month. Everything was fine until October last month when the DCA stopped taking their regular standing order payment. Not wanting to be a non-payer, I tried to send payments manually but after a few days the payment would reappear back in my bank account - clearly the DCA was no longer collecting the account. I contacted T-Mobile support (almost impossible!) via email and Twitter, only to be told that as the account had been passed to a DCA, they weren't able to accept payment on the account and I would have to deal with them. I had lost all record of who the DCA was, and asked them who was administering the account - they couldn't tell me which DCA was assigned my account. So I was stuck in the position of wanting to repay my debt, but having no-one to pay it to. T-Mobile wouldn't take my money, nor would it seem the DCA, whoever they were. After a few months of trying, I gave up, and the DCA hadn't bothered trying to get in touch re: non-payment. I figured that after almost 12 months and no contact that it was a dead account. Last month, I tried again with T-Mobile and the DCA with similar results, so I wrote to T-Mobile's CEO asking if he would expunge the remaining balance and consider removing the default as a gesture of goodwill in light of the hassles I had had. He agreed to the former, but not to the latter. So fast forward to today and I'm checking my monthly credit reports through Equifax and Call Credit (Annualcreditreport) and I notice that T-Mobile have indeed marked the default as settled. HOWEVER, they have also wiped all history of the debt between the original default date (Dec' 06) and the date of settling the default (July '11), alleging the account entered default in Sept '10 after a period of arrears - this is clearly not true! I've screengrabbed my credit report from last month and this month to illustrate. Accout as it was 4/7/11.. Account history, according to Annualcreditreport... Account as it shows today... I've opened a dispute with Equifax stating the above information and that the information recorded is inaccurate .. I wondered if there was anything else I can do? Surely T-Mobile can't doctor previous information in this manner to paint an erroneous picture of the behaviour of my account?