THANKS FOR YOUR REPLY He paid some by cheque and some cash, it was a commercial tenancy and he knew the Landlord. He has been a bit foolish but is part of the old school who didnt file things or pay by direct debit. I am adamant that the Landlord should have provided a commercial rent book and/or receipts when any payments were made. The Landlord has been bitter since he eventually bought the place and have been trying to dispute rents paid, claiming money is still owed. They are taking him to court for approx £3000 and i am trying to help him build up a defence.

THANKS FOR YOUR REPLY He paid some by cheque and some cash, it was a commercial tenancy and he knew the Landlord. He has been a bit foolish but is part of the old school who didnt file things or pay by direct debit. I am adamant that the Landlord should have provided a commercial rent book and/or receipts when any payments were made. The Landlord has been bitter since he eventually bought the place and have been trying to dispute rents paid, claiming money is still owed. They are taking him to court for approx £3000 and i am trying to help him build up a defence.

When rent is paid each month whos duty was it to supply a rent book and receipts for payments given? My Dad had been renting a garage for 10 years before he eventually bought it in 2007 but his former Landlords are saying some rents were missing and are still owing (about 3 months rent). My Dad insists everything was paid up before he bought the place. His Landlord as i have said earlier is trying to squeeze more money from him, he is saying that some rents were not paid, they cannot prove this and It has come to light that after paying rent for 10 years he was never given a rent book or receipts. Can anyone tell me where he stands because he was never given a rent book....daft i know! Would be grateful for anyones help

Another thing he has asked me to find out, and i think he has been rather silly about is: When rent is paid each month whos duty was it to supply a rent book and receipts for payment given? His Landlord as i have said earlier is trying to squeeze more money from him, he is saying that some rents were not paid, they cannot prove this and It has come to light that after paying rent for 10 years he was never given a rent book or receipts.

Thanks for that Steve, i was uder the impression that the over-run agreement would still be in place as long as he was still occupying the premises. I will check see if there are any other issues.

Thanks Steve, I`ts all a bit confusing but this is how it origionally came about. My Step-dad rented a Garage/Workshop from a person for 10 years, the tenancy started 1st August 1997 and was to end 31st July 2007, in this written Tenancy Ageement it stated that the occupier would be given 6 months notice to quit before the end of the agreement date of 31st July 2007. This notice to quit should have been given in January 2007, somehow the Landlords forgot and didnt issue the 6 months notice until April 2007, which took his notice beyond the 10 years. The landlords who have an ageement to collect their rent every month, did not do so for over 4 months, the rent was paid that was owed but now the landlords are suing my dad for overstay in tenancy. Who is in the right, no further tenancy agreement was made after 31st July 2007, so from that date until my father eventually bought the place on 26th November 2007, No eviction warnings were given, its just bad taste from the landlords who are trying to squeeze more cash from him. What i would like to know is can a tenancy agreement over-run its agreed end date and what happens if there is a dispute with no agreement in place? Does the origional agreement still stand if a tenancy has gone over its end period. It is really complicated , any help would be appreciated. Thanks markwill

Thanks Steve, I`ts all a bit confusing but this is how it origionally came about. My Step-dad rented a Garage/Workshop from a person for 10 years, the tenancy started 1st August 1997 and was to end 31st July 2007, in this written Tenancy Ageement it stated that the occupier would be given 6 months notice to quit before the end of the agreement date of 31st July 2007. This notice to quit should have been given in January 2007, somehow the Landlords forgot and didnt issue the 6 months notice until April 2007, which took his notice beyond the 10 years. The landlords who have an ageement to collect their rent every month, did not do so for over 4 months, the rent was paid that was owed but now the landlords are suing my dad for overstay in tenancy. Who is in the right, no further tenancy agreement was made after 31st July 2007, so from that date until my father eventually bought the place on 26th November 2007, No eviction warnings were given, its just bad taste from the landlords who are trying to squeeze more cash from him. What i would like to know is can a tenancy agreement over-run its agreed end date and what happens if there is a dispute with no agreement in place? Does the origional agreement still stand if a tenancy has gone over its end period. It is really complicated , any help would be appreciated. Thanks markwill

A tenacy agrrement ends in july 2007 and there is a required notice to quit of 6 months, this should be issued in Jan2007. What if the notice to quit is not given until April 2007, 6 months notice would be November 2007. Does the origional tenancy agreement still stand, even if it is past July 2007? or should an extension have been applied? Hope somone can help ASAP.

Well done to everyone at GAG, keep up the fantastic work. Can someone please help ?? My Step-dad rented a Garage/Workshop from a person for 10 years, the tenancy started 1st August 1997 and was to end 31st July 2007, in this written Tenancy Ageement it stated that the occupier would be given 6 months notice to quit before the end of the agreement date of 31st July 2007. This notice to quit should have been given in January 2007, somehow the Landlords forgot and didnt issue the 6 months notice until April 2007, which took his notice beyond the 10 years. The landlords who have an ageement to collect their rent every month, did not do so for over 4 months, the rent was paid that was owed but now the landlords are suing my dad for overstay in tenancy. Who is in the right, no further tenancy agreement was made after 31st July 2007, so from that date until my father eventually bought the place on 26th November 2007, No eviction warnings were given, its just bad taste from the landlords who are trying to squeeze more cash from him. What i would like to know is can a tenancy agreement over-run its agreed end date and what happens if there is a dispute with no agreement in place? Does the origional agreement still stand if a tenancy has gone over its end period. It is really complicated , any help would be appreciated. Thanks markwill

Wow, i thought about the six year limit, but for you guys to confirm and for an act to have been made against this is great news, thanks for your time and great help. Regards markwill

Hi, I am after some help if anyone can help... My Step-Dad was renting a workshop/Garage from someone for approx 10 years, paying £1,000 per month. When he began the Tenancy he was instructed to pay 3 months rent in advance, which he did. Approx 6 months ago he eventually bought the Garage from this person and another partner. Since he bought the place he has been hit for a bill for thousands of pounds in unpaid rent. The Landlord insisted that he never paid the 3 months in advance when he took on the tenancy, and has now taken my Dad to court to recover payment. He has cheque stubs or proof to prove he has paid and submitted these to their solicitor prior to the court hearing. The Landlord realises the mistake and agrees that it was paid at the time. However, the Landlord is now insisting that my Dad did not pay the months rent that was due after paying the 3months in advance... My Dad insists that this payment was also made. What i would like to know is, can the Lanlord be allowed to change dates from the origional demand willy nilly.. and even if my dad did owe this missed payment, could he still have to pay it after 10 years, with no reminders of the rent being in arrears at that date. Its confusing i know, my dad is old school and they think they can screw him for a bit more money. Anyones help on this matter would be appreciated. Thanks Mark will

Great advice from each of you...excuse my niavity but what is a CCA ? I will cancel the direct debit but i thought if it did go to court then by having a DD in place it shows that i am committed to making regular payments however small. Thanks again to everyone.

Hello everyone at CAG... this is my first thread on this wonderful site.I have had a mint account sent to intrum justitia about 6 months ago, at the time i was unemployed after being made redundant, i worked out that i would be getting approx £90 per fortnight after the CSA had their bit and my water rates were taken out. I have a few creditors to keep happy, i agreed a £10 per month payment to them and set up a direct debit.I am still unemployed and have received a letter from IJ saying they are reveiwing my account and are requesting £15 per month. I telephoned them to say this wasnt possible as i am finding it hard to live on what i get as it is. I was told by the operator at IJ that i should get a job or ask my relatives for the money. They are threatening court action unless i agree to up my payments...where do i stand?????