Hello, My partner has recently recieved a factually inept and incorrect letter from her ex husbands solicitor. In the letter it is addressed to her former married name and not her now maiden name. The divorce was signed and sealed in Feb 12. Does this make the letter invalid? I wondered what people would suggest to do with it? Thanks in advance for any help

Hello everybody, I had an account with Natwest which was marked as satisfied on my credit file in 2009 after massive rows with the bank. I am not banking with them any longer. Everything was fine until September - October 2011 when I received a letter from Natwest stating that my account (the satisfied one) was sold to Capquest. Then I received another letter from Capquest confirming the same. As expected I was inundated with calls sometimes as late at 8 p.m. and letters asking for payment. I spoke on two occasions with Capquest and advised that the account they were chasing was already settled unfortunately they would have none of it. Furthermore the guy I spoke last advised that if I don't pay up Capquest will enter a default on my credit file. Now a little bit about myself. I am a sole trader (working from home) and I run a very successful business with a turnover of about £250,000. I work approx 12 hours everyday and around Christmas when I am really busy sometimes I hardly get the chance to sleep. I am married and have two young children. It's hard to imagine how it is when you you are trying to work to have Capquest ringing constantly and asking for money. I think the worst it became when my parents came to see us for Christmas and Capquest kept on ringing us. In order to complete the ordeal Capquest entered a default on my credit file I believe at the beginning of March. As I monitor my credit file very closely I noticed the default straight away and contacted Capquest advising them that I was in process of applying for an overdraft increase to expand my business and asked them to remove the default prior me making my application to the bank. Unfortunately Capquest refused and kept asking me to pay up. I spoke with my bank manager and he clearly declined my application for the overdraft increase. He advised to have the default removed first and then re-apply. I went back (via email) to Capquest and explained that I was refused the overdraft increase and advised them that I will take legal action to seek compensation for the financial loss. I provided them with a hard copy of my credit file and asked them to investigate. After they completed the investigation I learned that Natwest sold my account in error and consequently I should not have been chased for money or having a default entered on my credit file. Capquest apologized for the error and stated at first that they acted on the basis of the information provided by Natwest and they don't have to pay me compensation. Then they asked me to prove that not being able to obtain an overdraft increase for 4 months caused me any financial loss. They removed the default obviously at the beginning of June. However I already lost four months and I will now have to delay my business expansion until the next year. Although the default was removed from my credit file I believe that I should not have been subjected to such treatment from this debt collection agency and I am just about to take action in the county court to claim compensation for financial loss and harassment over the phone and mail. I have been looking into the templates library and I cannot find any template for such case. If any one out there can provide any information or advice on this matter I would greatly appreciate. Many thanks for having the patience to read this.

Hi - bit of a strange situation here.... Person A made an internet transfer but entered the wrong details, accidentally using an old sort code and account number. Person A contacts their bank (Halifax) and asks what they can do....Halifax say they can do nothing and advises Person A to contact recipient bank (Santander). Santander refuse to discuss accounts with Person A as they are not the account holder. Person A contacts Person B (the Santander account holder). Person B contacts Santander Business Banking (business account) but they will not discuss account as the account is closed, no transfer history can be recalled so identity cannot be confirmed. (account in question IS closed as has been recently confirmed, and was closed by Santander themselves following a lengthy argument about huge overdraft of hundreds of pounds which amounted from an £8.50 charge levied by Santander against the account, and Santander have not been in contact about the situation in nearly 3 years following the last correspondence from Person B to Santander). Person B writes to Santander giving them 14 days to return money to Person A otherwise a complaint will be lodged with regulatory body. Person B receives letter this morning (16 days after deadline date) stating that payment from Person A has been credited to the closed account to offset overdrawn closing balance and they will not be returning the funds to Person A. My question is can a bank legally keep hold of money that they have been told was sent in error and doesn't belong to them or Person B? They obviously couldn't release the details of either Person A or Person B to either party to resolve the issue, so where does everyone stand? This has been going on since March of this year (2012). Flip the situation over; a bank accidentally credits someones account with funds, the person spends the money knowing they don't own it, and they go to jail. How is this situation any different! I'm guessing that with all the flap about excessive bank charges, Santander decided to step away from the situation and just close the account. No Credit Rating records have been effected by the account (sole trader account, no limited liability). Does anyone have any suggestions? Are they calling Person B's bluff over the threat to go to Trading Standards et al?

Hi all, Any help much appreciated. I pulled up my credit report today after not being on it for 6 or so months to find this which has confused me and am just looking for some advice on what it means: STUDIO Mail order £0 03/06/2012 It has £0 balance and credit limit yet is showing on my negative side with credit expert and is listed as revolving credit. Now I did apply for credit with them around december 2011 but never had any response from them so assumed nothing of it. I have contacted them straight away about it to query it and sort out getting it removed but im confused on why this would be placed on my report with a £0 balance and credit limit yet when I log onto their website to search for an account with them, it says I do not exist with them Thanks

I had a letter from my bank saying that a cheque for £346 had been paid into my account in error and they want me to pay it back. I understand that I am responsible for this sort of thing but my complaint is that between the cheque being paid into my account and my going on holiday and spending the amount, I did not receive a statement. I am not registered for on-line banking, so simply checked at an ATM machine that I had a good amount of money available before I went. I trusted the balance to be accurate and so went on holiday, spending the money (perhaps I should be a little more aware of what I have in my account). The bank are of course requesting that I pay back the amount and if I must, then I will however, I do feel particularly badly done too, as I had no way of knowing that my balance was wrong, as I had not had a statement.